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I have recently been reading Friedrich Schiller's fantastic Drama William Tell, in which he not only relates the folkloric-mythological origin of Switzerland upon its liberation from the yoke of the Habsburg dynasty, but also posits how a rebellion — I imagine, in contrast to the Jacobin Reign of terror after the French Revolution — should be organized.

The popular insurrection that Schiller describes in his work does not leave any deaths behind, except for that of Geßler, the despotic tyrant murdered by William Tell. Also, at the end of the play, Johannes Parricida assassinates his uncle, King Albrecht, and asks Tell for a safe haven from persecution. To convince him, he claims that they have both killed two nefarious people who abused their power, to which Tell replies that the cases are not comparable. He acted in defense of himself and his family, while Parricide wanted to satiate his lust for power and greed:

"Parricidas Erscheinung ist der Schlussstein des Ganzen. Tells Mordtat wird durch ihn allein moralisch und poetisch aufgelöst. Neben dem ruchlosen Mord aus Impietät und Ehrsucht steht nunmehr Tells notgedrungene Tat, sie erscheint schuldlos in der Zusammenstellung mit einem ihr ganz unähnlichen Gegenstück, und die Hauptidee des ganzen Stücks wird eben dadurch ausgesprochen, nämlich: ‚Das Notwendige und Rechtliche der Selbsthilfe in einem streng bestimmten Fall‘" (cf. Alexander Geist, Wilhelm Tell. Inhalt, Hintergrund, Interpretation.)

"Parricida's appearance is the keystone of the whole. Tell's murderous deed is morally and poetically resolved by him alone. Next to the nefarious murder out of impiety and ambition now stands Tell's act of necessity, it appears guiltless in the composition with a counterpart quite dissimilar to it, and the main idea of the whole play is expressed by this very fact, namely: 'The necessary and legal of self-help in a strictly determined case.'"

It is the right to self-defense and to resistance where Tell presumably finds his justification. However, other sources suggest that Tell's decision to kill Geßler had little to do with Swiss independence and self-defense, but rather pure revenge (Gessler forced him to risk his son's life in the famous apple-shot scene).

Thus some questions arise.

  • Regarding William Tell: Is the tyrannicide perpetrated by William Tell morally legitimate? (I know this is not incredibly general, as you should be familiar with the work in order to be able to answer it, but was curious. I would be very glad if someone could share their opinion and might probably award a bounty if I find it interesting :))
  • If we abstract on a more general level: When is tyrannicide legitimate from a moral point of view? Which philosophical currents (or philosophers) — I am thinking above all, of authors such as Hobbes or contract theorists, but also utilitarianism — would have supported/rejected it? And why?

Thanks in advance.

Dr. Mathva
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4 Answers4

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The extra-judicial killing of a tyrant, for the crimes they have committed in their abuse of power, is the sort of moral question that moral philosophers tend to shy away from. There are, however, methods by which one can work through this sort of question.

First -- one must recognize that there are multitudes of moral stances that one may adopt, and the answer can vary significantly between them case-case. To do valid moral thinking, one must therefore think through amoral question from many of these stances, and should only adopt actions that are supported by all or most of the "best" of them.

Second -- there are worse and better moral stances. All of them are endorsed by advocates. But a reasonable standard for "worse" is peer opinion. The "worse" ones, are those which the non-adherents think they lead to particularly bad moral outcomes much of the time. Among these worser ones would be Legalism (in which the Tyrant would, as lawgiver, always be "in the right" whatever offenses he committed); Darwinian rationalizations for "alpha" behavior; and references to theological or cultural legalism. Under many of these worser stances, tyrranicide is always wrong. But as worser stances, their views are mostly irrelevant.

Third -- some moral stances are simply too diverse to be of much use. "Wisdom traditions" often encode good pragmatic wisdom, but they are very culturally specific, and some cultures will have useful guidance on a question like this, and many others will not. The historical Virtue Ethics have the same problem -- there are too many virtue sets that have been followed, and the answer depends on the specific set one is working from.

There are three primary stances that are widely seen as "better": Utilitarianism, Rights Ethic, and a pursuit of Truth and Love as overriding virtues. One can examine these three stances, and arrive at a pretty good understanding of how to behave in a particular instance. In addition to these three, there are two darwinian-inspired perspectives that are less objectionable to non-Darwinians, which can also be examined -- Eusocial ethics, and Deep Ecology.

Rights Ethic is simplest here, as outcomes and motives do not matter. Self defense, and defense of others from abuse, justifies Tells tyrranicide.
Rights Ethic also advocates for a We the People justification for governance, which Gessler was violating, so Gessler was also guilty of violating his social contract with the governed.

In Utilitarianism, it matters what happens NEXT. IF tyranny was just the nature of governance of the time, then there was not a crime or a problem on Gessler's part, just SOP bad governance. BUT -- if there was particular opportunity to institute much better governance, which apparently from history there WAS, then EVEN IF Gessler was not a particularly bad ruler, EVEN THEN, his murder and overthrow would be morally justified. utilitarianism therefore endorses his tyrranicide.

Truth is not a big driver of appropriate action in this case, but Love ethics has a lot to say. Killing someone is almost always wrong in Love ethics. The goal should always be to reach out and try to establish a caring connection, and try to convert Gessler to a better person through a transformation of the heart. Note I said almost always -- Love ethics could justify violence in opposition to totalitarian thought police movements that seek to impose some more harmful memeplex, excluding Love virtue. But Gessler was not doing that. Love Virtue ethics seem to work better if one accepts personal immortality, and the relative unimportance of exactly when one dies in this world. Under Love virtue, this tyrannicide is wrong.

Under Eusocial Ethics -- it matters what happens to the stability and effectiveness of the society with or without the tyrranicide. The Swiss system became stable and highly productive, much more so than the feudal systems around them, hence eusocial ethics would endorse the tyrranicide.

Under Deep Ecology, the health of Gaia is the key question. As humans are the reasoning arm of Gaia, we are needed to protect Her from events She cannot predict or prevent without planning. The outcome of a governmental dispute in a tiny corner of Gaia, and the possible deaths of a few humans in the process, is of little import in Deep Ecology. BUT -- the principles of unchecked power with no moral or other consequences, which is exercised by Gessler, is anathema to Deep Ecology ethics. Overturning them, and the development of a Canton government with a concept of Responsibility to Constituents -- THIS matters a LOT to Deep Ecology. Deep Ecology would endorse the application of moral consequences to Gessler.

Four of these five better moral stances all support Tell's Tyrranicide.

Dcleve
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  • I wonder which stance would work best where I live at this time? Perhaps people could just choose it and get started solving problems? – Scott Rowe Aug 05 '22 at 18:20
  • @ScottRowe -- Much moral philosophy involves pointing out the imperfections of competing moral theories. This is based on the premise that most readers have moral intuitions, and if a theory violates them in specific cases, it is a flawed theory. Every one of these five have such refutations. As a pragmatist, I am fine with that. I now have five good but imperfect tools to apply to problem solving. That none are perfect, means I can't use just one. – Dcleve Aug 05 '22 at 18:51
  • I have a box full of tools, I never find any conflicts about them. I never debate with anyone about which tool is best, I just use them. Why do people debate and disagree about tools? – Scott Rowe Aug 06 '22 at 01:24
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I would turn for guidance, to Darwinism, and game theory. Taking this approach, we have to act in the interests of the unit of selection, the gene - unless we sacrifice that for the wellbeing of kin, able to replicate that behaviour, to the betterment of the entire community.

This framing sees the true nature of despotism and authoritarianism, as a free-rider problem, when any individual is asked to sacrifice their own children, it infringes a right they cannot give up, the premise by which they exist at all. When a leader asks such sacrifice, but will not make it themselves, they are insulated from the mechanism of selection (eg war, or firing an arrow into an apple), while parasitising on those who have undergone selection. This will given time, create an unstable game-theoretic equilibrium, where the tyrant class is insulated from selection, while the non-tyrant lineages continuously improve through selection.

Of course this doesn't refer to rights, or what is moral, it only echoes the lesson of history, that tyrants must fall.

Game theory should always include an additional option for all players, at all times. When is destruction preferable to continuing to play? This is the basis of the social contract. Those with nothing left to gain, have nothing to lose. So they will spin the wheel, of revolutionary chaos, in the hope of something new. Usually everyone loses, so it is in a political system's and community's interest, to flex rather than stay inflexible, when the community of those with nothing to lose grows too large. The Baron's Rebellion, The Peasants Revolt, The English Civil War, the Jamaican Slave Revolt, and the Peterloo Massacre, are examples that affected the development of the British State, where such groups grew substantial enough to effect lasting impacts. Their right to act, was when they felt they had nothing left to lose.

CriglCragl
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    Although this was not exactly the answer I was expecting, I must admit that it is the most interesting one!! I didn't think that Tell's Tyrannicide could be approached from game theory — and the result is great! – Dr. Mathva Feb 06 '21 at 19:24
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Although it’s an interesting idea the question presupposes that there is a standard reference of ‘moral legitimacy’ which, considering we are in a philosophy forum, is a very dubious proposition.

There are several possibilities:

If there can be no fixed standard then the question is invalid, i.e. lacks meaning.

If there may be a fixed standard, akin to a monist truth, but unprovable by humans as we are all dwelling within Plato’s cave to varying degrees, then the question is indeterminate.

If there are no fixed standards but there might be relative standards depending on time, space, culture, environment, etc... then the question is too open ended. According to whose preference for ‘moral legitimacy’?

If there is a fixed standard as to which we can ascertain ‘moral legitimacy’ then the question is answerable.

As proof of such a construct is yet forthcoming in the realm of human knowledge in all likelihood there can be no final answer.

M. Y. Zuo
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  • Moral reasoning is not, and cannot be -- closed form proofs. This is also true of many of the practical problems we need to solve in life. Your premise that only closed form proofs are legitimate forms of argument is -- very clearly wrong. – Dcleve Jan 31 '21 at 02:43
  • @Dcleve “Your premise that only closed form proofs are legitimate forms of argument” Did I say that? I am pretty sure I did not. In fact in all likelihood there an infinite number of valid answers which implies the opposite. – M. Y. Zuo Jan 31 '21 at 19:53
  • Your answer rejects the possibility of use of plausibility, usefulness, judgement, and wisdom in evaluating non-closed-form solutions -- therefore declaring them unevaluatable, and therefore not relevant. Hence only closed form satisfies the criteria you set for a relevant argument. And your very first sentence makes a false claim about the question -- the question does not "presupposes that there is a standard reference of ‘moral legitimacy’". That is a necessity for a rationalist approach to philosophy, but not for pragmatism nor judgement. – Dcleve Jan 31 '21 at 20:34
  • @Dcleve “... therefore declaring them unevaluatable, and therefore not relevant” Ah this is where you have gotten confused, evaluability does not automatically imply relevancy nor vice versa, nor the opposite. There are of course situations where unevaluable ideas can still be relevant. Note that I explocitly state the possibibility of an unlimited number of unevaluable but potentially relevant answers. There just cannot be a final answer indepedent of enviornment and so on. – M. Y. Zuo Jan 31 '21 at 21:25
  • You appear not to have understood that non-closed-form solutions ARE evaluatable, and the development of those evaluation standards involves pragmatic judgment and wisdom. – Dcleve Jan 31 '21 at 21:43
  • @Dcleve Did I ever say such things were impossible? I’m frankly confused at why you believe I don’t understand the idea. Here is what I wrote “ If there are no fixed standards but there might be relative standards depending on time, space, culture, environment, etc... then the question is too open ended.” i.e. moral questions can be answered, and evaluated, in a way specific to some circumstance, just not in a general or final way. If you read the titular question closely, it clearly is too broad to yield a singular answer. Therefore it presupposes the existence of a general answer, etc. – M. Y. Zuo Jan 31 '21 at 23:52
  • Hmm. I am challenging two presuppositions to your answer. 1) I challenge that there are fixed standards for anything. See https://www.cambridge.org/core/journals/think/article/abs/guide-to-logical-pluralism-for-nonlogicians/EDFDFA1C9EB65DB71848DABD6B12D877 2) I am disputing that the only alternative to fixed standards is to throw up one's hands. Pragmatists reject the analytic presumption of futility when one does not have a "fixed" solution, and work to find a best solution despite lack of certainty. I provided an example of how to do this in my answer. – Dcleve Aug 05 '22 at 15:37
  • @Dcleve, I don't understand 1), you linked to something behind a paywall. The vast majority of readers on this forum would likely not be able to read it, including me. For 2), I never stated the 'only alternative' is to 'throw up one's hands'. There may be an infinite number of alternative possibilities. – M. Y. Zuo Aug 05 '22 at 19:47
  • I apologize for any paywall issues. That article does not appear to be paywalled for me. The point it was making, is that since the turn of the century, the consensus of logicians has been that there is no One True Logic. If there is no single standard of logic, then there can BE no "fixed standards" for anything. For 2), you appear to keep denying writing this: "If there are no fixed standards ... then the question is too open ended." My point 1, combined with your quote, leads to your asserting futilitarinism for all evaluations. – Dcleve Aug 05 '22 at 21:07
  • @Dcleve, I still don't get the point, why does the existence, or nonexistence, of 'One True Logic' affect anything I wrote? I'm not really sure what your addressing with 2) either since I clearly state 'If there...' not 'There definitely exists...' If your confused about the wording, then to clarify: a subset of the infinite possibility space aforementioned includes all cases where the idea of 'fixed standards' themselves are undecidable. – M. Y. Zuo Aug 06 '22 at 02:53
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Killing a tyrant is always justified same way robbing and stealing is not justified.

All moral systems agree that taking something thats not yours is immoral.

Moral systems argue whats yours and whats not. For example, can government forcefully take from rich and give to poor? Is conscription moral? Can people be put in prison on suspicion alone if suspicion is strong?

All these presupposes that whats taken is whose its taken from. Tyranny presupposes the opposite. By definition, a tyrant rule in absence of his subject's consent. A tyrant take away whats clearly not his.

Anybody who attempt to justify tyranny also implicitly justify robbing, stealing, deceiving, thuggery, murder etc.

Ofcourse killing a tyrant has to be extra judicial. It has to be carried out by rebels. Thats by definition. Tyrant is in power, or he is not a tyrant. He is in power therefore he control all courts in his land. Even if any judge pass a judgement against him being head of state he can always override that ruling. Any judge outside his land dont have jurisdiction in his country because that goes against sovereignity of his country. If his country is not sovereign then he cannot be a tyrant, thats by definition. We dont call a governor or a mayor a tyrant.

Atif
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    You aren't using philosophy. Plato said democracy is doomed to unravel, & advocated tyranny - he went to the court of the Tyrant of Syracuse, to support him. We, now, don't like tyranny, *as a result of our discourse*. Hobbes made the case that order is more important than the liberty to live 'nasty brutish & short' lives - he was tutor to Charles 2 in exile, during the Englisg Civil War, so it's clear why. What *basis* do you identify consent of the governed as key? How about 'tyranny of the majority', where do you stand on that? – CriglCragl Jan 12 '23 at 01:37
  • "We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness.--That to secure these rights, **Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed**" Source: https://www.archives.gov/founding-docs/declaration-transcript. This is "Decleration of Independence of USA". – Atif Jan 12 '23 at 05:10
  • Please see https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/help/how-to-answer on how to write a good answer by the standards of this site. You are expected to reference established philosophical work. – CriglCragl Jan 12 '23 at 10:43
  • @Crigl I said all moral systems require consent of ruled to rule them. You want me to cite sources for it. I cannot cite entirety of philosophy. You said Plato is against it. The source you cited said that Plato supported and advocated for tyranny. Well, who was he advocating to? The tyrant himself (who is already convinced enough to be a tyrant)? Obviously Plato was advocating to the ruled - if its not the ruler then it has to be the ruled, who else is there? His debates and books are for convincing people. People has to be convinced - their consent is needed - Plato knew this. – Atif Jan 13 '23 at 06:42
  • @Crig _Tyranny of Majority_ is not discussed here. Question ask about **a tyrant** (singular). Your question is therefore irrelevant. Consider asking a separate question. – Atif Jan 13 '23 at 06:55
  • I am pointing out why your answer has been downvoted. You are expected to show familiarity with relevant philosophical views & materual. Plato had seen the failure of democratic Athens against the Spartans. His students were members of the demos, the elite male citizenry who gave military service, & got to vote, before the imposition by Sparta of the 30 Tyrants. – CriglCragl Jan 13 '23 at 09:39
  • @Crigl Thanks for showing your reasoning. Its hard to improve if mistakes are not pointed out. However, I dont see how familiarity is not expressed. A lot of stuff is referred. Its easy to debunk the reasoning by bringing up just one counter example because I used the term "all". No counter-example is ever provided by you or anybody. Are you saying Plato's teachings weren't open to all? That he actively deny teaching and debating with anybody who don't pay? I think lack of familiarity is on your side. Also, the elite citizenry is among the ruled. Sparta didnt have an army of 30 fighters. – Atif Jan 13 '23 at 18:19
  • @Crigl Consent of ruled never meant you have to ask consent of each and every human living in your land. Even today males and females upto age 18 or 21 are not asked consent of. So do tourists, illegal immigrants, mental patients. Even from the rest not even majority's consent is required in most countries, only consent of those that voted is required. In ancient greece and rome women's, kids' and slaves' consent was not required. In kingdoms only consent of nobles was usually required. The ancient greek tyranny you talk about is like that, only ask the elites. – Atif Jan 13 '23 at 18:26
  • Kingdoms = divine right, see Hobbes. So: just consider the demos, voting adults. As you say, not every single 1 can be expected to consent. But, simple majority for decisions risks tyranny of majority. This is an edge-case your stance raises. & it's a real problem, that political systems & theories have found ways to manage. What is yours? Plato was extremely class-ist, read the Republic, he advocated for aristocracy. Plato's teaching at the Academy required pay, yes. He like Socrates was against public debates, as the refuge of sophists & rhetoric over truth. Comments aren't for discussion. – CriglCragl Jan 13 '23 at 20:10
  • @Crigl Kingdoms are not always "divine rights" - thats a very limited view and show little grasp of knowledge. The "divine right" view is _only_ in some countries (england, france, japan etc), many more countries don't have that concept (russia, sparta, india, china, italian states, many turkish kingdoms etc). Therefore it should be taken as a special case, not as an always or even general rule. _Who_ can come to power is not always considered by some "divine right". Even when it is there has to be consent of ruled even if just to accept that the right to rule is "divine". – Atif Jan 14 '23 at 04:55
  • @Crigl The questioner asked about _tyrant_ (singular) so, as I said before, _tyranny of majority_ is not on topic here. Why do you keep bringing it up? Even in _tyranny in majority_ majority is not in power. Majority's consent is taken but majority don't rule. Like you dont rule in your country even when you do vote. A tyrant is a usurpur of power - come in power without consent of ruled. To avoid calling all rulers tyrant - because none of them have consent of everybody - we have to put some limit on whose consent is required. – Atif Jan 14 '23 at 05:05
  • As I said, I brought it up as an edge-case, that challenges your picture that consent is pretty much all that matters. Comments are not for extended discussion. I shall cease my engagement here. – CriglCragl Jan 14 '23 at 13:11