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Let x be something that exists unequivocally. Then "x exists" is true, but does it make sense to say x itself is true?

And vice versa - the proposition "x exists" is true, but is there a sense in which the proposition itself exists?

Generally speaking, is the property of being true equivalent to the property of existing always, sometimes, or never?

Joa
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    The proposition "x exists" exists whether it is true or not, so there is no equivalence in that sense. As for equating truth and being, there was such line of thought in classical philosophy, although the meaning of "x itself is true" is not very straightforward, see [Did medieval philosophers believe that Truth is causally active?](https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/a/68577/9148) and [According to St. Thomas Aquinas, do “being” (ens) and “truth” (verum) differ?](https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/q/46860/9148) – Conifold Apr 11 '20 at 02:04
  • Basically, we say that a *statement* is true or not, according to its correspondence with facts. Existence is a fact. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Apr 11 '20 at 09:32
  • The question you ask is related to the notion of "transcendental properties of being" : unity, goodness and truth. It is a medieval doctrine. See Stanford encyclopedia. Also, some links with Heidegger and his notion of " truth of being" . –  Apr 20 '20 at 22:27

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