1

Here is the passage: Joseph: I wanted to write a sixth here. But when I studied singing, I learned that fa leads down and mi leads up. Since the progression moves upward from the sixth into a third I have used a sharp in order to emphasize the tendency to ascend. Besides, the f in the eleventh bar would result in a harsh relation with the f# in the thirteenth bar.

My question is: Why does f# have a tendency to ascend to g and not descend to f since both g and f are one semitone away from f#. f# can be interpreted as either a mi or fa right?

Or should f# be interpreted as the raised seventh in the mode G?

By the way, this isn't the same question as I asked earlier. It's a different question on the same passage.

Chris Olszewski
  • 1,169
  • 9
  • 15
  • This question is a duplicate of a comment you posted a few minutes ago. – jjmusicnotes May 19 '13 at 17:25
  • A question can't be a duplicate of a comment. Comments are, by definition, temporary. – American Luke May 19 '13 at 17:26
  • @ Luke - my intent was to suggest that Chris should have waited more than a few minutes for an answer to his original comment before starting a new question. In addition, we are all temporary. :) @ Chris - For an answer to this question, please refer to your original question as I have posted a long answer that encompasses this question as well. – jjmusicnotes May 19 '13 at 23:27

0 Answers0