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Intuitionistic logic is a form of logic that doesn't have the law of the excluded middle, or LEM. The LEM says basically that a proposition that is not true is false, and a proposition that is not false is true. Classical logic has LEM but intuitionistic logic does not.

A 3-value logic is a logic where a proposition can be not merely True or False, but also something else, typically Unknown. It can be used to handle various propositions that 2-value logic cannot, propositions formed such that there is no consistent way to assign either true or false to them. Naturally, LEM also does not apply to a 3-value logic. I tend to view LEM as a device for defining what counts as a proposition. In a logic with LEM, for example, you can't allow a proposition like the Liar, "This sentence is false", so it just can't be formulated as a proposition, but in 3-valued logic it would be possible to allow it.

It occurs to me that Intuitionistic logic is a sort of stub 3-value logic, one where there is no way to deal with the third value, but where the possibility of a 3rd value is still allowed for. That is, without LEM, there is no way to prove that a proposition can only have one of two values.

Are there any developments of this idea in the literature? For example, is there any work where intuitionistic logic is used as a base for either classical logic or 3-value logic just by adding axioms or other features?

David Gudeman
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    I expected otherwise, and so was surprised to find [that intuitionistic logic is explicitly **not** three-valued](https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/intuitionistic-logic-development/#Gliv19281929). – Kristian Berry Feb 19 '23 at 19:52
  • @KristianBerry And that's better - three-valued is more restrictive. – Frank Feb 19 '23 at 22:37
  • @Frank, more restrictive in what sense? – David Gudeman Feb 19 '23 at 23:43
  • @DavidGudeman Saying that there are only 3 values seems more restrictive to me than removing the excluded middle? – Frank Feb 19 '23 at 23:47
  • Truth value gaps of intuitionists are not representable by a third (or more) truth value(s). Intuitionistic logic is not truth functional, as one should expect since validity is conceived proof-theoretically rather than via truth conditions. In fact, many-valued logics failed to describe any of their intended interpretations, indeterminacy, uncertainty, vagueness, etc. The reason is the same: those phenomena are not truth functional either, see [Urquhart, pp. 40-43](https://www.academia.edu/1399119/Basic_many_valued_logic). At present, MVL is a formal toy with no semantic load. – Conifold Feb 22 '23 at 09:17
  • @Conifold, intuitionist logic doesn't have any finite set of truth values. it can be understood as having an infinite set. Although that isn't what my question was about. As to MVL, the most widely used logic in the world (the SQL query language) is MVL. MVL has many applications in AI also, as well as in a number of formal logic investigations. – David Gudeman Feb 22 '23 at 11:41
  • You are probably referring to Heyting algebra. Its elements are "truth values" only in a trivial sense, one can make elements into their own "truth values" in any lattice. SQL uses null as a processing placeholder for missing data, MVL also provides a calculus for constraint satisfaction problems, neither gives it semantics of a logic. – Conifold Feb 22 '23 at 12:20
  • SQL has truth-table semantics for a 3-valued propositional logic. I don't know what else you think is needed for the "semantics of a logic". As to being a "placeholder" for missing data, that's what 3-value logic is for--to represent the outcomes of queries that can't be consistently be viewed as true or false. It's much more than a placeholder. Every expression can be null, and the outcome is well-defined in such cases. – David Gudeman Feb 22 '23 at 19:18
  • The third value, "unknown", is for queries that are not known to be true or false because the data is missing. And even for those queries some compounds may well be known, but that will not be picked up by operations with null because higher order processing of the database would be required. It is simply a processing workaround that mismatches its own "intended" semantics for computational feasibility. One simply cannot stuff non-truth functional semantics into truth value calculations. But it is peculiar that when people tinker beyond classical logic that is "intuitively" expected to work. – Conifold Feb 22 '23 at 20:38
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    @Conifold, I don't see any rational point here, just personal distaste for the formalism. It works very well in practice. It has concrete semantics for giving the answers to questions, where the data is incomplete. Calling that a processing workaround is like calling zero an accounting workaround. – David Gudeman Feb 22 '23 at 21:11
  • Arithmetic with 0 works as expected of "nothing", logic with null does not work as expected of "unknown", that is the difference between formalizations and workarounds. But let's say working in (some) practice amounts to semantics, isn't intuitionism a rather different practice from computer parsing of SQL? How is the 3rd value supposed to be "allowed for" when properties of operations provably rule it out? You cannot "add axioms or other features" to change a theorem into a non-theorem. – Conifold Feb 22 '23 at 21:50
  • @Conifold, you keep saying the logic does not work as expected, but thousands of SQL writers disagree with you and we have thousands of conveniently written practical applications to prove it. People made the same complaint about F->anything and anything->T. And they probably made the same complaint about zero in the early days. What's x/0, huh? This can't be a number; it makes no sense! – David Gudeman Feb 22 '23 at 22:39
  • Why complain? A calculus does not need semantics to be useful. And "thousands of SQL writers" agree with me because they see the difference between utility and semantics, which you seem determined to ignore. That is probably one reason for reading MVL into intuitionism. In any case, Gödel defined a sequence of n-valued intermediate logics that "approximate" the intuitionistic one "from above". His G3 is probably the closest 3-valued surrogate to your "axioms or other features", see [Baaz et al.](https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S016800720700019X) – Conifold Feb 23 '23 at 00:42
  • @conifold, I've actually done research in programming language semantics, and I can't figure out what you are talking about. SQL has semantics. – David Gudeman Feb 23 '23 at 08:57
  • I should clarify that I used "semantics" in the linguistic sense rather than mathematical, where every lattice is a "logic" and every set model an "interpretation". Lukasiewicz, Kleene, etc., developed MVL to formalize pre-existent notions. When the formalism was developed that did not work out, but it found applications as such. SQL handles missing data according to such and such (pragmatic) rules, they do not formalize any "intended interpretation" and are not expected to, "semantics" is a formal appendage parasitic on processing. In contrast, say, to intuitionism or supervaluationism. – Conifold Feb 24 '23 at 04:34
  • @Conifold, I still don't know what you are getting at. The intended interpretation for NULL is that the data is not available. This is well-formalized. It has nothing to do with processing. In fact, it is not more convenient to implement NULL than a bivalent logic; it is considerably more difficult (I've also written a SQL compiler). NULL *means* that the data is not available. This notion that it is somehow just a trick for processing and doesn't mean anything seems to come out of nowhere. Programmers program based on meaning, not based on processing, and they find it meaningful and useful. – David Gudeman Feb 24 '23 at 11:46
  • Exactly. The interpretation of null is the rule for dealing with missing data, the only issue is that of implementation. The algorithm, the formalism, is primary, semantics piggy-backs on it. We do not see long reflections on whether formalization captures "it" fully, or debates over the "true meaning". Because there is no "it" to capture. I think you are taking me as criticizing what programmers are doing. Not at all, they are doing exactly what they should. The point is that it is different from what intuitionists or higher set theorists or those who study vagueness are doing. – Conifold Feb 24 '23 at 20:55
  • @Conifold, no, I don't think you are criticizing programmers. You seemed to be saying that NULL has no meaning; that it's just an ad hoc processing gimmick. I was arguing from programmer behavior that this is not the case. I would still like to understand your position because I respect your insights, but we have probably carried this conversation on too long. – David Gudeman Feb 24 '23 at 21:26
  • "I don't see any rational point here, just personal distaste for the formalism. It works very well in practice." Yup. – J D Feb 24 '23 at 23:55
  • @JD Is it distaste because you both read "meaning" as value, no meaning = useless, *ad hoc*? I do not. For example, I am using Post's MVL with cyclic negation (arguably, the more meaningless ones) to analyze relations. With no distaste. Feelings and value judgments aside, primary application of formalism is distinct from interpretation of semantic conceptions it aims to formalize aided by it, and the distinction is reflected by practice in respective fields. It is not crisp, there are degrees and borderline cases, but the case of MVL is rather clear cut, as discussed e.g. in Urquhart's paper. – Conifold Feb 26 '23 at 09:01
  • @Conifold There are two forms of distaste. One: the open expression of normativity. Two: the application of normativity in definition to reject. The Fregean claim that definition has no truth condition because it's an imperative is an example. Intuitively, the claim "MVL is a formal toy with no semantic load" seems to achieve Two by legislating "semantic load" in some strict formalism of truth-condition that itself is too restrictive. "Semantic load" is itself loaded in terms of truth-conditional semantics... – J D Feb 26 '23 at 16:22
  • Meaning is broader than truth-conditional semantics which is why linguists reject it as adequate, and David is right to reject the claim that MVL is just a toy with no relation to human reasoning. – J D Feb 26 '23 at 16:23
  • @Frank I'd concur that MVLs are more restrictive than ILs since it presupposes more axioms. – J D Feb 26 '23 at 16:25
  • @Conifold The major problem with MVL as it is currently known is that it uses the wrong conditionals and biconditionals. There is a remedy that is quite simple but has gone unnoticed for a century. – Confutus Feb 28 '23 at 12:40
  • You see those two houses over there? The one in the middle is mine. – Boba Fit Feb 28 '23 at 22:37

3 Answers3

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A few points can be made here.

In the modern way that the Law of Excluded Middle is defined, it is a syntactic statement. It states that "φ ∨ ¬φ" is a theorem of logic. It is the Principle of Bivalence that states that "either φ is true or φ is false". Classical logic features both and intuitionistic logic lacks both. But they are not the same thing and some formal systems have one but not the other.

Intuitionistic logic is not three-valued. In fact, it is not n-valued for any finite n. This was proved by Kurt Gödel.

The term proposition is not usually limited to the two-valued case. For example, the SEP article on many-valued logic uses the term proposition and propositional logic to include the many-valued case.

Allowing three values does not satisfactorily resolve the liar paradox, since one can extend the paradox by weakening it, e.g. "This sentence either has no truth value or it is false."

You can treat superintuitionistic logic as a base for logics that are intermediate between intuitionistic and classical. There are several such logics.

J D
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Bumble
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  • In the last sentence, did you intend to write superIL? – J D Feb 20 '23 at 04:09
  • You seem to have misunderstood a couple of things in my question. First, I didn't say intuitionist logic is three-valued. I'm well aware that it is not. That's what I mean by calling it "a sort of stub 3-valued logic" where you can't reference a third value but also can't rule one out. Second, I was not saying that propositions are *in general* limited to two values; I was saying that in 2-valued logics they are limited to 2 values. I'm well aware of multi-value logics. – David Gudeman Feb 20 '23 at 05:43
  • Finally, the Law of the Excluded Middle harks back to classical Greece, and it is not a purely syntactic principle. Just because some microcosm of logicians uses the term in that way you describe doesn't make that the only correct way to use the term. – David Gudeman Feb 20 '23 at 05:46
  • Intuitionists typically do not accept that there is a third truth value. Sometimes this is expressed by distinguishing between a weak and strong version of bivalence. The weak version is that there are only two truth values; the strong version is that every proposition has one truth value or the other. Intuitionism is compatible with the weak version, but rejects the strong version. – Bumble Feb 20 '23 at 08:37
  • If you accept that propositions can be multi-valued, then I'm not sure what to make of your statement that you view LEM as a device for defining what counts as a proposition. The distinction between LEM and bivalence is as standard as it gets in modern logic, and is not limited to a microcosm of logicians. – Bumble Feb 20 '23 at 08:38
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In answer to the last question: is there any work where intuitionistic logic is used as a base for either classical logic or 3-value logic just by adding axioms or other features?

It's not in the literature, but it may be possible to do it the other way around, that is, to construct a model that satisfies Heyting's axioms of intutionism ( as for instance https://www3.cs.stonybrook.edu/~cse541/15chapter11.pdf ) using suitable definitions based on Lukasiewicz 3-valued logic. This does not establish equivalence. It appears that intuitionism uses a "strong" negation instead of the standard, which in a way breaks the system to make it non-truth functional, but the idea that intuitionism may be an incomplete stub of a more complete and robust (as well as truth-functional) 3-valued logic seems likely.

This doesn't really solve the paradox of the liar, since L3 has an "excluded fourth" law in place of the excluded middle, but an incomplete logic that can consistently handle the unknown is already useful in some computer applications.

As a bonus, it also seems possible to do the same with the Lewis axioms for S5: that is, construct a truth-functional 3-valued model that satisfies the axioms. Again this is not an equivalence, because the definition of the strict conditional is different, and Lewis's definition breaks the system, but the 3-valued version appears to be more robust.

Confutus
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In intuitionistic logic, we can't use LEM in order to prove propositions, but that doesn't mean that LEM is false. After all, the idea that "either LEM is true, or there's a proposition that is neither true nor false" is itself an LEM-like / classical piece of reasoning.

I mostly came into contact with intuitionistic logic via constructive logic, via proof assistants where you identify propositions with the set of their proofs and prove them by giving an explicit member of the set. In particular, when you're proving a disjunction "p or q", you need to pick which one of p or q you're going to produce a proof for, and then produce a proof for it, and on the other hand, when you have a proof for a disjunction, you're always able to inspect it and ask which of p or q it proves. In this way "p or q" means not only "p is true or q is true" but further "... and I can tell you which one".

Clearly we can't have LEM in such a system unless we're able to know not only that each statement is true or false, but decide which of those it is, which rules out any system that can encode basic integer arithmetic.

This doesn't mean that there's some secret third thing that propositions can be, that isn't either true or false. It just means that by restricting ourselves from exploiting the two-valued nature of our logic, we get proofs that can have more structure or content to them. These proofs are always also construction / decision procedures.

I intend this as an example of where an intuitionistic logical system may be useful despite conceptually having no need for a third truth value. I guess you could say "ok but this system doesn't track truth, it tracks provability, and there are three proof states, proven true, proven false, and unprovable", and that's kind of true? But it's not really central to what the system is for or how it works (and, as you suggested, the system doesn't really have a way of referring to the third state directly.)

Ben Millwood
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  • Everyone seems to be misunderstanding my point, thinking that I'm saying intuitionist logic has three truth values. If it had three truth values, then it wouldn't work as a base for classical logic. My point was that it is agnostic about additional truth values, not that it has a third truth value. – David Gudeman Feb 28 '23 at 22:53