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According to Kant's first formulation of the Categorical Imperative, will selling goods at a higher price than valued be unethical? If our maxim is that "I ought to sell goods at a price higher than its valued price in order to maximize my profits", and if the maxim is made into a Universal law, will it cause a logical contradiction as when everyone sells goods at a higher than its value, there will be no such thing as a valuation of the goods?

John123
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  • "Higher than valued" by whom? There is no objective "value price", even in ideal markets rational individuals are all assumed to be driven exactly by economic self-interest, and the *equilibrium* price is then determined by supply and demand. Of course, if one's actions in pursuit of profit go beyond market rules (monopolization, collusion, damping, racket, etc.) *that* will not universalize and will be unethical. – Conifold Oct 31 '22 at 02:33
  • You are going to have to define "valued price" in order for this question to make any sense. – David Gudeman Oct 31 '22 at 02:48
  • Does this answer your question? [Misconception surrounding Kant's categorical imperative?](https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/94452/misconception-surrounding-kants-categorical-imperative) –  Oct 31 '22 at 04:34
  • Note that as long as the price is agreed upon by both parties and the transaction is mutually beneficial, there can be no violation of the categorical imperative, nor is the seller considering the buyer only as a mean. – armand Oct 31 '22 at 04:54
  • @Conifold Thank you, that answers my question. I have always wanted to consider the ethicality of decisions made by rational economic agents beyond simple considerations of consumer/producer welfare and your answer weaves economic concepts into Kantian ethics which I greatly appreciate. – John123 Oct 31 '22 at 05:02

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