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Can the logic used by continental philosophers like Hegel be formalized by mathematicians? I heard the logic used by Hegel and Heidegger is different from the logic used by analytical philosophers such as Kant and Wittgenstein. I am wondering if their logic can be made into mathematics system like analytical logic was made into a mathematics system, and why it's not possible or possible.

Mauro ALLEGRANZA
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Sayaman
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  • Maybe useful Francesco Berto's paper on Dialectics. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Sep 03 '22 at 15:21
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    Hegel and Heidegger (and most continental authors, Kant is not in either category) use "logic" in the older sense which is closer to modern epistemology, see [What are the differences between philosophies presupposing one Logic versus many logics?](https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/a/37279/9148). As such, it is something of a means to open-ended conceptual discovery and cannot be formalized by definition. This said, Girard developed some formal systems in his program of ["transcendental syntax"](https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/a/37274/9148) that are loosely inspired by Kant and Hegel. – Conifold Sep 03 '22 at 21:47
  • @Sayaman There is only one logic we know of, human logic. So, if Hegel's logic is different from Kant's logic, one of them has to be wrong, although maybe both are wrong. 2. Mathematics is unable to formalise natural language expressions. – Speakpigeon Sep 04 '22 at 10:03

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