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One of the key passages is from Prolegomena to Any Future Metaphysics (1783). According to Kant pure intution is the means to obtain mathematical theorems as synthetic a priori propositions. This possibility

must be grounded in some pure intuition or other, in which it can present, or, as one calls it, construct all of its concepts in concreto yet a priori. (§7)

I do not see what the content of this type of intuition can be. Because Kants excludes the presence of any object as content of pure intuition. Instead he says:

There is therefore only one way possible for my intuition to precede the actuality of the object and occur as an a priori cognition, namely if it contains nothing else except the form of sensibility, which in me as subject precedes all actual impressions through which I am affected by objects. For I can know a priori that the objects of the senses can be intuited only in accordance with this form of sensibility. From this it follows: that propositions which relate merely to this form of sensory intuition will be possible and valid for objects of the senses; also, conversely, that intuitions which are possible a priori can never relate to things other than objects of our senses. (§8)

  1. How is intuition possible without the presence of any object of intution? Of course I can make a mathematical construction only in my mind. But even then I imagine and remember some objects in question.

  2. How can mathematical propositions be verifed by the means of pure intution?

  3. Which mathematical propositions are obtained by pure intuition, do we have some examples?

A similar question has been asked What is "intuition" for Kant?

Jo Wehler
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  • Not a reply :-) See the linked post: "How is it possible according to Kant?" We do not know... Here we can see a paradigmatic philosophical approach: we **assume** something we believe it is necessary in order to explain something "mysterious": Plato's ideas, Aristotle's substance, etc. We agree (do we?) on the fact that mathematical facts and truths are not acquired by observations, etc, i.e. they are not known by way of "induction" form empirical facts. If so, they must be "already there" (*A PRIORI*) in our mind. But we "apply" them to empirical facts: we count things. 1/2 – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Apr 12 '22 at 07:07
  • If so, in the language of 19th Century philosophy of the mind, they must presuppose some *faculty* that must be "pure", i.e. prior to and independent of empirical observations, but about "sensible" objects and thus a sort of "intuition": "There is therefore only one way possible for my intuition to precede the actuality of the object and occur as an a priori cognition..." 2/2 – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Apr 12 '22 at 07:09
  • Imho it is the wrong question: If it is something that is a necessary condition for something else that can evidently be experienced to exist, then it is not only possible but also real in Kant's system. Asking how that, in turn, is possible is basically a meaningless question. – Philip Klöcking Apr 12 '22 at 07:36
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    @Mauro Allegranza Do you say: The term 'pure intuition' is explaining 'obscurum per obscurius'? :-) – Jo Wehler Apr 12 '22 at 07:51
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    @Philip Klöcking Could you please elaborate a bit your comment, possibly convert it into an answer? Why do I ask the wrong question? - Because you are a Kantian I am keen to learn your explanation. Thank you in advance :-) – Jo Wehler Apr 12 '22 at 07:56
  • Useful: Chrales Parsons, [Kant’s Philosophy of Arithmetic (1969)](https://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1007/978-94-015-8046-5_3?noAccess=true) and Ch.Parsons, Intuition, Ch.5 of Charles Parsons, [Mathematical Thought and its Objects (2008)](https://www.google.it/books/edition/Mathematical_Thought_and_its_Objects/C1r-9C8yP34C). – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Apr 12 '22 at 09:34
  • One of the key-point is Kant's distinction between *intuition* and *concept*: "All cognitions, that is, all [re]presentations consciously referred to an object, are either *intuitions* or *concepts*." Concepts are general representations because they represent many objects by marks or characteristics that these objects have in common. This means, that a concept is "general" because it applies to (possibly) many things, many individuals fall under the concept (see Frege). – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Apr 12 '22 at 09:59
  • This is not so with *intuition* that is not general but singular. Paradigmatic examples: space and time. Time is not a concept under which several "individual times" fall: it is a single "entity". Some confusion can be found also in Kant, when he says: "The concept of space contains in itself the very form of all sensual intuition." Compare with the mature position in the *Critique* (A25): "the original representation of space is an a priori intuition, not a concept". – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Apr 12 '22 at 10:05
  • Also *Logik*(1772): "A concept is a general representation; representations which are not general are not concepts. A singular representation is intuition." And see (B137): "Space and time, and all their parts, are intuitions, and are, therefore, singular representations. Consequently they are not mere concepts through which one and the same consciousness is found to be contained in a number of representations. On the contrary, through them many representations are found to be contained in one representation, and in the consciousness of that representation; and they are thus composite." 1/2 – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Apr 12 '22 at 10:08
  • The unity of that consciousness is therefore synthetic and yet is also original. The singularity of such intuitions is found to have important consequences." 2/2 – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Apr 12 '22 at 10:08

3 Answers3

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Kant writes:

There is therefore only one way possible for my intuition to precede the actuality of the object and occur as an a priori cognition, namely if it contains nothing else except the form of sensibility, which in me as subject precedes all actual impressions through which I am affected by objects.

I think this says a lot. Intuition, according to Kant, contains nothing else except the form of sensibility. This form precedes all actual impressions made by objects (or through which you are affected by objects). So pure intuition contains no objects. Rather, it contains the form of sensibility.

For I can know a priori that the objects of the senses can be intuited only in accordance with this form of sensibility.

Again, this form of sensibility precedes intuition. The a priori form of sensibility is the base of the pure intuition about objects. The objects are not part of the form of sensibility, but the intuited objects are intuited in accordance with the a priori forms of sensibility. So the a priori forms of sensibility are, in a sense, the objects of pure intuition. It are these a priori forms that facilitate pure intuition.

From this it follows: that propositions which relate merely to this form of sensory intuition will be possible and valid for objects of the senses;

So propositions regarding the a priori forms of sensibility (sensory intuitions, pure intuitions) are possible and valid for objects that impress themselves on us via the senses. Pure intuition uses the pure a priori sensory forms, the forms of sensibility, to intuit the objects that impress themselves via the senses. The objects "click" or "fall into" the a priori forms of the sensory sensibility. This is the pure intuition.

also, conversely, that intuitions which are possible a priori can never relate to things other than objects of our senses.

And let it be clear. A priori pure intuition, making use of the a priori forms of the sensibility, or propositions derived from these, only relates to the objects that impress themselves via the senses.

A tight construction. I'm not sure, but I think the forms of the sensibility on which the intuitions of objects rely, are the forms of mathematics. The propositions about these a priori forms are the basis of pure intuition about objects presenting themselves through the senses. Pure intuition is using the pure, a priori form of math.

  • Like Kant I consider mathematical propositions to be a priori statements. But different than Kant I consider them to be analytic, not synthetic. If you identify 'pure intuition' with the use of 'the pure, a priori form[s] of math' then I ask: What are these a priori forms of math? Can you name some examples? - I would not accept as answer '3-dimensional Euclidean space' or '1-dimensional continuum of time'. At least since Special/General Relativity these are outdated as a priori concepts - together with the whole concept of synthetic-a-priori-propositions :-) – Jo Wehler Apr 12 '22 at 08:59
  • @Jo Wehler: What puzzles me is your interest in Kant as you don't appear to agree with him on anything ... – Mozibur Ullah Apr 12 '22 at 09:19
  • @Mozibur Ullah I consider philosophy a questioning enterprise :-) – Jo Wehler Apr 12 '22 at 09:21
  • @JoWehler Mathematical shapes like the circle, ellipse, parabola, or hyperbola, spring to mind. (cross sections of a cone). Surfaces, lines, functions. Propositions about them. Time can be involved to make the forms move. You can compare shapes by equations. Construct forms to give shelter to different numbers, like spinors (rotating on a Möbius strip), vectors, or tensors. Rotations make forms rotate. What is the form of a rotation? A generator of a rotation can be the angular momentum. What is the form of a momentum? An object moving in space? There is so much math nowadays, so many forms!;) – Pathfinder Apr 12 '22 at 09:29
  • @JoWehler, Relativity is not relevant to Kantian metaphysics. The non-Euclidean geometry used in Relativity does not show that Euclidean geometry is false; it is just another formalism for describing space, one that proves convenient in certain arcane physics problems. It's like saying arithmetic is false because certain computer algorithms use modulus arithmetic instead of regular arithmetic. – David Gudeman Apr 12 '22 at 15:56
  • @DavidGudeman Still... The Euclidean geometry used in Newtonian dynamics implies a universe with no cause and effect. In a Newtonian universe everything happens at once. Time is an illusion in such universe. It might not have been realized then, but still... – Pathfinder Apr 12 '22 at 16:14
  • @Felicia, I am puzzled by your comment. Yes, geometry represents a static view of the world (and therefore, in a sense, timeless), but that doesn't mean that "everything happens at once"; it means that "happenings" are not part of the formalism at all. Certainly you are not claiming that Newton's laws had no cause and effect. Newton (following Galileo) used a new dynamical mathematics, not simply geometry. – David Gudeman Apr 12 '22 at 16:23
  • @David Gudeman From where do you know that the insights of Relativity are not relevant for Kant’s metaphysics? - Relativity shows that Newton’s hypothesis of absolute space and time is not the best possible. It has been superseded by 4-dimensional models with spacetime curved by possibly varying mass distributions. History shows: The question of the right spacetime model cannot be decided a priori, by elevating the insights of the latest physics to the status of synthetic-a-priori. I consider this a blind spot of Kant‘s whole enterprise to build a synthetic a-priori base for metaphysics. – Jo Wehler Apr 12 '22 at 20:21
  • @JoWehler, Newton didn't believe in absolute space though his comments about acceleration are often incorrectly described that way. But that isn't the part of Newtonian physics that differs from modern physics. But even if Newton had believed in absolute space and he was proven wrong, what would that have to do with Kant? As near as I can tell, the argument you are sketching relies on the rejection of Kant's idealism. But, of course, Kant's view of space relies critically on idealism and can't be expected to satisfy a realist. – David Gudeman Apr 12 '22 at 23:37
  • @David Gudeman Newton in Principia Mathematica, p.77, Scholium to the primary definitions, see https://archive.org/details/newtonspmathema00newtrich "I. Absolute, true, and mathematical time, of itself, and from its own nature flows equably without regard to anything external, and by another name is called duration:[…] II. Absolute space, in its own nature, without regard to anything external, remains always similar and immovable." – Jo Wehler Apr 13 '22 at 05:28
  • I think you are misinterpreting that passage, but I'm not willing to do the work to show it, so I'll let it drop. And in any case, it still has nothing to do with Kant. – David Gudeman Apr 13 '22 at 07:07
  • @DavidGudeman Hi! I only now saw your comment on my comment about instantaneous action, as Newton thought to happen. In an absolute spacetime, the speed of light is infinite (though I'm not sure what he thought about the speed of light though).Sorry, pressed to early. I continue below! – Pathfinder Apr 13 '22 at 07:19
  • @DavidGudeman So, the speed of light. In absolute spacetime there can be no cause and effect. Mass can't even exist if the SoL is infinite. In Einsteinian spacetime, a finite SoL is the equivalent of instantaneous interaction. A photon interacts instantaneously also. But because it takes time for the light to reach other particles it separates events in time (and space). So a finite SoL creates cause and effect. These wouldn't exist in Newtonian space (though he didn't realize, but he could have deduced it..). – Pathfinder Apr 13 '22 at 07:29
  • @DavidGudeman So, time wouldn't exist in a Newtonian world, as cause and effect are necessary (for thermodynamic time). – Pathfinder Apr 13 '22 at 07:31
  • Well, I don't believe your claims, either about "absolute space" requiring an infinite speed of light or about an infinite speed of light eliminating causality, but accepting them for the sake of argument, I still don't see what it has to do with Kant. – David Gudeman Apr 13 '22 at 15:38
  • @DavidGudeman Well, isn't absolute space and time what Kant believed in? – Pathfinder Apr 13 '22 at 16:02
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  1. How is intuition possible without the presence of any object of intuition ...

This is exactly the same question he asks in section eight. I'd advise you to read it more closely and ponder what he has to say. He says:

But with this step the difficulty seems to grow rather than diminish. For now the question runs: How is it possible to intuit somethimg a priori? An intuition is a representation of the sort which wpuld depend immediately on the presence of an object. It therefore seems impossible originally to intuit a priori, since then the intuition would have to occur without an object being present, either previously or now ... [thus] how can the intuition of an object precede that of an object itself?

Ge answers that the only possibility is that when the object is nothing other than the 'form of the sensibility'.

  1. How can mathematical propositions be verified by pure intuition?

Kant states earlier that "mathematical judgements are one and all synthetic. This proposition seems to have escaped the observations of analysts of human reason up to the present, and indeed to be directly opposed to their conjectures, although it is incontrovertibly certain amd very important in it's consequences."

He is correct in this assessment as Gauss was inspired by the synthetic description of geometry to discover non-Euclidean geometry. He also states "that first of all it must be observed that properly mathematical statements are a priori and not empirical judgements because they carry necessity with them which cannot be taken from experience." Thus they are synthetic a priori concepts. They are "verified" through "going beyond the concept to that which is contained in the intuition corresponding to it."

  1. Which mathematical propositions are obtained by pure intuition.

In section two, he mentions 7 + 5 = 12 and also the straight line between any two points is the shortest.

Mozibur Ullah
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  • Concerning my question 1: You are right. My question results precisely from reading §8. Apparently Kant knows about the problem. He presents it in clear words – tension is mounting! Eventually he claims like pulling a rabbit out of the hat: „my intuition […] contains nothing else except the form of sensibility […].“ What is ‚intuition of the form of sensibility‘? Are these technical terms from the tradition? Shall one look to Wolff’s metaphysics? – Jo Wehler Apr 12 '22 at 18:46
  • @jo Wehler: I can't say I'm much interested in your am-dram hamming up (meaning not at all). The argument is perfectly clear to those who are willing to pay attention to what Kant is saying. – Mozibur Ullah Apr 12 '22 at 20:14
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Note: I will be citing the B-edition, as trans. by Meiklejohn.

Space and time are not only forms of intuition, but formal intuitions, and these descriptions are subtly different. Intuition in general maps to reference/extension where discursion maps to sense/intension; intellectual intuition is the ability to refer 'merely' by 'trying' to refer, without having to 'land on a target' when exercising this ability. (Hence intellectual intuition crystallizes omniscience and omnipotence together, resolving in Kant to a divine faculty.) So as a form of intuition, space is a form of referring to externally different things (numerical differentiation).

But space, as a formal intuition, is then also a "pure object":

But apart from this relation, a priori synthetical propositions are absolutely impossible, because they have no third term, that is, no pure object, in which the synthetical unity can exhibit the objective reality of its conceptions.

That is, we can refer to our ability to refer.

Apriority, in Kant, can be effectively reduced to epistemic proactivity. Counting might seem like looking, but whereas your eyes happen to see things, your mind does not "happen" to count them, but you proactively count things (when you count them). (This point is obscure, esp. respecting the official definition of apriority at the start of the first Critique, but Kant makes it in the Groundwork (I think) when he compares the spontaneity of the understanding to that of reason.) So a priori intuition is proactive reference (indistinguishable from intellectual intuition in the case of a being with no passive faculty of consciousness).

Questions of more detailed applications of these principles, to mathematical questions, are beyond me at the moment, so I will just leave my answer at the first subquestion from the OP. My closing remark: space is the form of the external sense inasmuch as "external" means "different from," again going back to numerical differentiation. Time is the form of the inner sense, but this does not mean the form of my own inner self alone, but rather the overall principle of numerical identity over time. (This is how Kant traces together notions of permanent substance, skepticism about the external world, the integrity of spatial and temporal reference points, etc.)

Kristian Berry
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