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Did any ancient Greek philosophers condemn fornication (illicit sexual intercourse outside of marriage) or marital infidelity?

Plato was against acts of sodomy, saying they are "contrary to nature" (para physin, Leges 636c; Phaedrus 251a).

Geremia
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    Plato was not big on "natural" in society, and had some [cray cray ideas](https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/marriage/#UndMarHisOri) about wives and children held in common, with partners matched by the rulers. Aristotle, on the other hand: "*As to adultery, let it be held disgraceful, in general, for any man or woman to be found in any way unfaithful when they are married, and called husband and wife. If during the time of bearing children anything of the sort occur, let the guilty person be punished with a loss of privileges in proportion to the offense*", Politics, VII, 1335b. – Conifold Feb 04 '22 at 22:50
  • @Conifold Yes, Plato, like Marx, thought wives should be common property. – Geremia Feb 05 '22 at 02:04
  • @Conifold Does Aristotle explain why adultery should "be held disgraceful"? – Geremia Feb 05 '22 at 03:41
  • Aristotle already hinted in above ref: *in any way unfaithful when they are married, and called husband and wife*. Essentially such person arrived at a moral inconsistency which is perhaps the worst place one may arrive (hell metaphor?) regarding ethics which is perhaps the most important and deepest branch of philosophy. At least one needs to officially sever the moral relationship first... – Double Knot Feb 05 '22 at 05:27
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    Not specifically, but the whole 1335 gives what we would call utilitarian and prudential reasons, "*mating of the young is bad for child-bearing*", "*males are thought to be arrested in bodily growth if they have intercourse while the seed is still growing*", "*no deformed child shall be reared... abortion must be practised on it before it has developed sensation and life*", etc. Aquinas linked marriage to virtues via the discussion of friendship in Nicomachean Ethics, but the link is dubious, see [Friedman, Friendship, p.41ff](https://www.jesp.org/index.php/jesp/article/view/1263). – Conifold Feb 05 '22 at 05:50
  • @Geremia does Marxism count women as property? – Tankut Beygu Feb 05 '22 at 14:41
  • @TankutBeygu See _Communist Manifesto_'s appendix [_The Principles of Communism_ §21](https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1847/11/prin-com.htm#21) "What will be the influence of communist society on the family?": "Community of women [i.e., women as public property] is a condition which belongs entirely to bourgeois society and which today finds its complete expression in prostitution. But prostitution is based on private property and falls with it. Thus, communist society, instead of introducing community of women, in fact abolishes it."! – Geremia Feb 05 '22 at 20:02

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