Locke says: "Since the mind ... hath no other immediate object but its own ideas, which it alone can contemplate, it is evident that our knowledge is only conversant about them." If we take this view literally, doesn't it deconstruct Locke's own general theory and lead us directly to Berkeley's theory that "esse is percipi" ?
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Could you sketch how you see this deconstruction going? It is curious how it would convert "immediate object" into "only object". Btw, Berkeley's full quote is "*esse est percipi aut percipere*", and his theory is even more nuanced. – Conifold Aug 29 '21 at 09:30
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I'm upvoting, because although I think I know the answer, I haven't read Locke, and I'd like to see an answer by someone who has. – David Gudeman Aug 29 '21 at 18:43