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I always see in a lot of texts that use the idea that infinite regresses are impossible to justify their arguments. But I haven't seen any texts that address infinite regresses themselves. Are infinite regresses actually logically possible?

moh abdi
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    Consider the integers, which are the positive and negative whole numbers, and zero. They line up in their usual order like this: ..., -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ... They satisfy two interesting properties:(1) Every number has an immediate predecessor; and (2) There is no first element. The integers in their usual order are a model of an infinite regress. Everything has a "cause," an immediate predecessor, but there is no first cause. It's clear that the integers are logically possible, we use them every day. – user4894 Dec 22 '20 at 03:33
  • If we assume that the soul exists, could that be used to justify the possibility of an infinite regress? – moh abdi Dec 22 '20 at 03:38
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    I know a lot more about the integers than I do about souls. Can't help you on that one. My contribution here is purely mathematical. – user4894 Dec 22 '20 at 03:45
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    Does this answer your question? [Is an infinite regress good logic?](https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/12885/is-an-infinite-regress-good-logic) – Conifold Dec 22 '20 at 06:17
  • First define what you mean by "infinite regress". As a previous comment shows, a mathematical interpretation is perfectly logical, but that doesn't seem to be what you had in mind. – Sam Dec 22 '20 at 15:32
  • The question should point to at least one specific text mentioning infinite regresses, and also from the comment it seems the question may be spiritual, not philosophical, and thus off-topic. – tkruse Dec 23 '20 at 01:28

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