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I am reading about free will and it seems to me that for everyone free will is associated with consciousness and this is why the Libet experiment has been so important in this debate.

I do not understand why we could have free will only if it is our consciousness that acts freely and not just our brain (listen for example https://youtu.be/9uRTjfhIf4M?t=1725 and https://youtu.be/9uRTjfhIf4M?t=2081).

Ward Clark
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The reasoning behind the consciousness requisite can be reconstructed as follows :

(1) If I cannot control an action (or of an action process), I do not act freely

(2) If I am not aware of action (or of an action process), I cannot control it

(3) Therefore, if I am not aware of an action (or of an action process), I do not act freely.

Geoffrey Thomas
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  • I have tightenend the statement of the argument but not revised its substance. – Geoffrey Thomas Dec 29 '19 at 11:16
  • By an 'action process' do you mean a series of related actions such as might be involved in carrying out a plan or enacting a policy? If not, then what is an 'action process'? I only seek clarification. – Geoffrey Thomas Dec 29 '19 at 11:43
  • Why do I need to be conscious to control an action. A self driving car controls a lot of things but it is not conscious. – Ward Clark Dec 29 '19 at 13:14
  • @Ward Clark Are you claiming that self driving cars have free will? – D. Halsey Jan 09 '20 at 00:50