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Properly translated, however, the title reads “War Is a Mere Continuation of Policy with Other Means.” “With,” not “by.” There is zero ambiguity in the German. The translators, or perhaps their publisher, flub this one.

From a mainstream article

Is the author of the article, or anyone associated with Clausewitz scholarship, saying that, for Clausewitz, war is always and necessarily subservient to politics, or merely that politics is not subservient to war?

If the former, then I think it would be wrong to call his absolute war a total war. So does Clausewitz not abandon the accepted rules of war?

The German original reads

Der Krieg ist eine bloße Fortsetzung der Politik mit anderen Mitteln


I'm not sure, because I believe I can pursue an objective without making it subservient to means or vice versa. And even if the means "continues" the objective -- is seen as another form of the objective.

Geoffrey Thomas
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    FWIW I'm confused by the claim "Declaring that war is a mere continuation of policy “by” other means implies that diplomatic, economic, and ideological interaction between the combatants screeches to a halt when the shooting starts." I don't read that at all, and in fact I don't see a substantive difference between "by" and "with" here except insofar as one usually uses the former as opposed to the latter when talking about means. – Noah Schweber Nov 14 '19 at 00:06
  • X is done **by** Y is i think a passive construction, as Y is the agent. X is done **with** Y is not, and Y is an object of war. so the "correct" translation emphasizes that 'means' over war. right? not sure what to add to that –  Nov 14 '19 at 00:46
  • ah yeah really sorry if i did offend you at all, btw –  Nov 14 '19 at 02:39
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    I do agree the comment is a bit wide of the topic. i will just delete it. –  Nov 14 '19 at 03:10
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    @NoahSchweber I agree that semantically, the propositions seem to be equivalent while the former is more elegant/common. The commentary seems to be a bit superstitious at that point. – Philip Klöcking Nov 14 '19 at 10:44
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    There is so much possible ambiguity in that one sentence - why is there even a debate? If the book does not give you an answer on how C. saw war in the greater context of things, how would you get that from one sentence? Examples: 'bloße' could mean 'mere' or 'naked/bare'; 'Fortsetzung' could mean 'continuation of smth. after cessation of that thing' or (tortured)'appendage' or 'continuation of smth. that also continues'; 'Politik' could mean 'policy' or 'political sphere' or 'totality of all politicians'; My two cents would be to translate it 'War is merely politics, continued by other means' – bukwyrm Nov 14 '19 at 12:29
  • 'Clausewitz', not 'Clauswitz' – Geoffrey Thomas Nov 14 '19 at 13:22

3 Answers3

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'With' or 'By'

'By other means' makes for more colloquial English, whatever the German original. Part of the art of translation is to avoid literalness in the interests of conveying in one language ideas and arguments expressed in another. We say 'By what means will you achieve this?', 'I will have to pursue my objective by other means'. Such sentences are entirely typical when we talk about 'means' in a means/ ends context, and to use 'with' in place of 'by' would jar. Logically, the English 'by' and the German mit have no difference of meaning in the present context.

What is Clausewitz's point?

Clausewitz's dictum is imprecise, hence your questions about it. One might readily argue that war is not a continuation of politics by different means but the discontinuation of politics (in the sense of diplomacy and negotiation) in favour of violence. Neither 'war' nor 'politics' has sharp boundaries of sense or meaning.

One might even reverse the dictum and say that politics is a continuation of war by other means, as when state actors, with no diminution of hostility, shift from violence to diplomacy to achieve their ends. But that's a parenthesis.

When Clausewitz holds that war is a mere continuation of politics by other means, I suggest that the 'mere' is meant to slough off any moral associations. Clausewitz is not concerned with notions such as that of a just war or jihad. He regards war, any war, from a purely instrumental viewpoint.

War, politics and subservience

You ask whether 'for Clausewitz, war is always and necessarily subservient to politics, or merely that politics is not subservient to war?'

'War' is a political term in the sense that war, as opposed to mere fighting, takes place between political units - poleis in Ancient Greece, 'states' or 'nations' in the modern world. You and I cannot go to war ! To probe deeper:

War

War is organized violence by voluntary, conscripted, or mercenary armed forces; planned by the leaders of a nation or a group; involves the use of weapons; aimed at an enemy; and may be offensive or defensive. In the narrow sense, war is waged by the armed forces of one nation against the armed forces of another nation. In the wide sense, war may also be waged by clandestine resistance fighters, guerillas, partisans, terrorists, crime syndicates, warlords and their followers; it may be civil, religious, ethnic, or tribal; it may take the form of terrorism, genocide, and massacres; it may be waged by armed forces against a group of fellow citizens or against some transnational group; the enemy aimed at may or may not be armed or organized and may or may not include civilians; and the violence involves killing, disabling, and generally subduing the enemy. (John Kekes, 'War', Philosophy, Vol. 85, No. 332 (April 2010), pp. 201-218: 201.)

The wide sense seems the most relevant. From Clausewitz's dictum it is tenuous (at best) to conclude that politics is subservient to war. War is an instrument of politics. Indeed, the mere instrumentality of war and its reduction to a means - a vehicle - by which politics can be continued ('by other means') strongly suggest the subservience of war to politics, not the other way round.

As for the other possibility of interpretation, 'war is always and necessarily subservient to politics', it's important to note that Clausewitz does not commit himself to universal ('always') or modal ('necessarily') claims. He would have no need to, even if he did. His central idea - or at any rate the idea central to the dictum - is that a state, nation or ruler pursuing certain goals that conflict with or otherwise bear upon the affairs of another state, nation or ruler should, or at least does, regard war as a part of the toolkit. Politics in the sense of diplomacy, negotiation or bargaining is one tool; war is another. Efficient instrumentality is what matters; we use whichever tool, politics or war, is calculated to achieve our ends.

Interplay

I'd just add that a warlike state, nation or ruler is likely to have a style of politics that fits its belligerency; and that political ideas influence the ways in which war is conducted.

Geoffrey Thomas
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For a proper understanding of this quote, you have to realise what the end of war is for Clausewitz.

The end of war is to subdue the enemy under the will of a political body; a will which is defined and constituted by the politics of that political body.

Having understood this, it is easy to see why war is on par with other political means which exist to enforce political will, eg. police forces and judicial systems. It's simply that war is what usually happens if political will is enforced across political bodies.

Given that, it is unequivocally clear that war is subservient to politics/political goals. This has been misinterpreted even within Germany, eg. by the German generality in WW I.

Philip Klöcking
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  • i'm not sure i can completely see your third paragraph, but thanks, that answers the question. i guess it depends on whether "end" -- as you are using it i mean -- is in terms of traditional means / end, or a question of time –  Nov 14 '19 at 11:01
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    @another_name The point is that Clausewitz thinks in terms of end-means relations here. Therefore, if war is thought as the means to a political end, and that end is defined and enforced by politics, war becomes a political means and nothing more. – Philip Klöcking Nov 14 '19 at 11:06
  • by only other question is whether that is prescriptive or descriptive [all war is necessarily / by definition legitimate to the state that wages it] –  Nov 14 '19 at 11:50
  • @another_name Since he regularly refers to examples and experience, I think it is fair to say that his theory is meant to be descriptive, which is exactly why he opposes absolute war as a mere ideal and war how it can actually be. – Philip Klöcking Nov 14 '19 at 15:17
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Clauswitz was a smart guy, but he was not an intellectual, so it probably doesn't pay to over-read his grammar. My sense is that he meant to imply that that policy (implicitly international policy) does not end at the beginning of warfare. The policy objectives a nation has before military conflict begins are the same as the policy objectives it has after; the policy has merely taken on a (putatively) necessary military dimension. I think you know this, but you're tripping over the prepositions.

Ted Wrigley
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