Could arguments claiming the impossibility to prove or disprove anything be flawed because if they were sound they would also be impossible to prove?
Or could you just assume they must be right without any proof?
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1Not clear... are you alluding at an "argument regarding the impossibility to prove or disprove appicable to absolutely anything" and thus also applicable to itself ? – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Jul 15 '18 at 16:16
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I made an edit hopefully clarifying your question. You may further edit it especially if I got your intent wrong. Is there any context why you find the question interesting? Is there anything you are reading that brings up this question? – Frank Hubeny Jul 15 '18 at 20:51
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Arguments do not "claim", and doubts about proving/disproving do not need to be proved, the [burden of proof](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burden_of_proof_(philosophy)) is on those making the positive claims. – Conifold Jul 15 '18 at 22:54
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@Conifold I think an example positive claim to consider would be: _The statement "Nothing can be proven" cannot be disproven._ – christo183 Jul 16 '18 at 11:50