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In Madness and Civilization does Foucault say / imply that no-one loves a mad person? If not ever, then that it has been a system of power?

I can't tell whether or not I just made that up, when I read it. e.g. he does skirt close to the question ;-)

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p28.

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    See [Foucault's Histories of Madness and Medicine](https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/foucault/#4.1) as well as [Madness and Civilization](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Madness_and_Civilization). – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Nov 26 '17 at 10:06
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    yes, but are you saying i have to reread the whole book rather than actually ask a question? that makes no sense, the downvote is absurdly poor @MauroALLEGRANZA –  Nov 26 '17 at 10:19
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    Exactly: the book is about the history of medical treatment of madness in Western world from the Early Modern Era **and** about the changing "point of view" of culture and society about madness. Thus, to ask "does Foucault saythat no-one loves a mad person?" has little sense. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Nov 26 '17 at 10:24
  • @MauroALLEGRANZA i can't see what inference you are making there? –  Nov 26 '17 at 10:25
  • i think the complete opposite inference that the book is about "the changing "point of view" of culture and society about madness" so he will say who loves the mad makes at least as much sense, tbh @MauroALLEGRANZA –  Nov 26 '17 at 10:26
  • i also find your sarcasm problematic, but it's subtle enough not to report, so wtg @MauroALLEGRANZA thanks –  Nov 26 '17 at 11:35
  • in fact the more i think about it the more i like your comment. why not flesh it out into an answer :) –  Nov 26 '17 at 11:36
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    On the face of it, I find it pretty obvious that Foucault is writing about how madness was "still" depicted like in Shakespeare and Cervantes, i.e. beyond appeal (which he specifies explicitly as not curable, not not loveable). Hence, I cannot reconcile title and body of the question really well. – Philip Klöcking Nov 26 '17 at 13:54
  • yes i agree that's the explicit meaning, but that doesn't preclude him implying otherwise. pomo can be subtle, right? and the question itself? @PhilipKlöcking –  Nov 26 '17 at 13:55
  • I'm not sure about Foucaults reading of Shakespeare or about your own; its obvious that Ophelia still loves Hamlet despite his 'antic disposition; and King Lear going mad on the heath still has the fool and Kent to keep him company, and later Cordelia rescues him. – Mozibur Ullah Dec 03 '17 at 22:00

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