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Today someone told me : "You're not a girl, so you can't understand girls problems".

What kind of fallacy/sophism is this ?

virmaior
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GlorfSf
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    There is a missing premise : "if you understand girl's problems, then you are a girl". – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Nov 30 '16 at 12:15
  • Suppose your description of the girl's problems is the same as the the girl's description. You can't understand girl's problems because you're not a girl and hence, your understanding is flawed. But your understanding is the same as her understanding, and if your understanding is flawed, then her understanding (equal to yours) is also flawed or she is not a girl. QED. – Red Banana Nov 30 '16 at 17:10
  • Now supposing your understanding could be the same of any girl, the same effect also applies and hence, there are no girls. But [imagine how it would be to be at the top making cash money? Go and tour all around the world, tell stories about all the young girls](https://youtu.be/REUVZ9DS4wE) which will not exist and hence, this awesome Prodigy's song would have to be changed. – Red Banana Nov 30 '16 at 17:19
  • This is analogous to [Is it a fallacy to say that a sane person cannot apply rational thought to the motivations of the insane?](http://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/30124/is-it-a-fallacy-to-say-that-a-sane-person-cannot-apply-rational-thought-to-the-m/30129#30129) with the insane replaced by girls. The closest named fallacy is perhaps Pasnau's "content fallacy", conflating the content of mind with its state, non-girl mind can still contain and reason about "girls' problems". But in contexts where "understanding" plausibly requires intimate acquaintance this may not be a fallacy. – Conifold Nov 30 '16 at 19:44
  • @Conifold Since such contexts do not cover all options, it remains fallacious because it is overly broad. Realize that the flipside of this exact argument is one of those advanced against women voting, given that only men fought wars, and so only men should decide when wars should be fought. –  Dec 01 '16 at 00:07
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    Context dependent arguments are not meant to be generalized, and they can not be without sacrificing plausibility. I would not consider something like "men can not "understand" how it feels to be pregnant" necessarily fallacious, although it is hard to come up with a valid generality that it instantiates. – Conifold Dec 01 '16 at 00:34
  • @Conifold trans-men who have been pregnant when they were female. Whether something is sensible by convention does not bear on whether it is valid logically. The way this is phrased, it is not valid logically, even if we all know what the speaker really means. –  Dec 07 '16 at 18:56
  • If I decide what straight men can and cannot understand, and generalize about it, I am pulling in unstated premises that are demonstrably false most of the time, but might apply in a given context. –  Dec 07 '16 at 19:05
  • I've *never* been able to apply rational thought to the motivations of people who are truly insane (i.e. psychotic). And I've never been able to understand what it is like to be of the male gender, either. Not as a man understands it. So, it must be true. I believe anyone who assumes they can is likely delusional. And by the way, these are some of the most frustrating problems for me to comprehend. I always have to give up and just remind myself that it's impossible to know everything that is going on in their minds, from their unique perspectives. – Bread Dec 19 '18 at 04:47

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This most basically a 'genetic fallacy': judging data based on its source rather than its content.

In particular, this is out-group stereotyping. Other common forms of genetic fallacy are appeals to authority or tradition and ad hominem attacks on the speaker's reliability.

As is common, here it is part of a 'Bulverism': where one diagnoses someone's inability to understand, instead of indicating where the misunderstanding lies, insinuating there must be misunderstanding, without identifying any.

There is a particular obnoxious angle derived from identity politics here in that we have the automatic assumption that women have adequate empathy for men to weigh in on all of their problems, but men lack that same ability when it comes to women.

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Good question, but there is no logical fallacy involved. The sentence is capable of being true or false, not in virtue of logic, but in virtue of facts. And, with the best of intention and without neat-picking, I tend to think it is very likely to be true - if you have not wondered why a certain beautiful woman goes out with a certain ugly man who is not only unattractive but also repugnant, you are not old enough.

Setting aside edge cases for the moment, let's consider the following statements:

No man understands girls' problems.
No man has sexual desire for men.
No dead person is bothered by pain.

The reason I think this question interesting is that it eventually asks what the word "understand" means: what does a person feel when he understands a situation?

When an object-word is understood, the listener's mind forms a mental image similar to the one which that word expresses. If that word is "fragrant" but the listener has no sense of smell, the listener will not understand it - i.e. he will not associate a noise with an olfactory sensation.

To understand how a steam engine works, a series of percepts are necessary, and mental images are the ultimate results.

It follows that mental images - feelings, sensations, desires, etc. - are most likely the ultimate results of understanding.

To understand another person's problem presupposes common feelings, and common feelings are the ultimate results. If a person has no sense of smell, he will never be offended by BO and will not understand why BO is a huge problem in the office. It follows that, if a person has no sense of smell, his opinion on BO is much less weighty than that of a person who can smell.

Similarly, the mother will never understand why the son is so attracted to a certain woman while the father virtually agrees with the son on every aspect. It follows that a mother's opinion on the son's girlfriend should not be taken seriously.

It follows that men's opinions on issues particular to women are very likely to be less credible than women's own opinions.

Being unable to understand does not necessarily imply lacking concerns for the sufferings of others. Civilized western men's attitudes towards women are nothing but admirable.

Being able to understand does not automatically imply compassion. An evil man is capable of exploiting your vulnerabilities for his sadistic pleasure; he may justify it by some karma yoga philosophy, which only reminds you of the kind of fine phrases used by a 20th-century saint to excuse himself for sleeping next to naked young girls.

George Chen
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  • Even if the deduction is *likely* to be correct, this is a logical fallacy. Relating to men's behaviors in relationships, for instance, or to qualities that are attractive in men and not in women is a set of "girls' problems" that gay men have direct experience of. So diagnosing the lack of understanding of *all* such problems by sex *alone* is still fallacious. Logic does not work on statistics. –  Dec 01 '16 at 00:04
  • Let us [continue this discussion in chat](http://chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/49446/discussion-between-jobermark-and-george-chen). –  Dec 01 '16 at 16:19
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Whether the proposition is fallacious or sophistic depends upon the utterer's epistemological presuppositions. If a [naive?] realist, then Jobermark's answer will suffice. If, however, the speaker is [for instance] an anti-Kantian/enlightenment-universalist Herderian neo-pragmatist/historicist (a historical forebear of contemporary "post-truth" culture and its fetish with identity politics), your interlocutor is essentially/merely telling you that you lack the cognitive/emotional/historical equipment to occupy the logical space occupied by women, you lack the hardware necessary to run the software, so to speak. (Have a look at Rorty's Feminism and Pragmatism, at p. 202 of his Philosophical Papers, Volume 3, Truth and Progress, which, while not directly on point, expands upon this answer.)

I understand @Jobermark's point, both in response to my original entry and in response to Chen’s entry. However, I do not believe he grasps the thrust of my, and possibly Chen’s, argument. I mentioned Rorty's Feminism and Pragmatism, at p. 202 of his Philosophical Papers. What follows is a quotation from the first page of that essay, followed by an entry quoting Dewey, from the same essay at p. 216:

“When two women ascended to the Supreme Court of Minnesota, Catherine MacKinnon asked, “Will they use the tools of law as women, for all women?” She continued as follows:

I think that the real feminist issue is not whether biological males or biological females hold positions of power, although it is utterly essential that women be there. And I am not saying that viewpoints have genitals. My issue is what our identifications are, what our loyalties are, who our community is, to whom we are accountable. If it seems as if this is not very concrete, I think it is because we have no idea what women as women would have to say. I’m evoking for women a role that we have yet to make, in the name of a voice that, unsilenced,might say something that has never been heard. “ [ McKinnon, Feminism Unmodified: Discourses on Life and Law (Cambridge: Harvard University Press, 1987), p. 77].

“Urging judges to “use the tools of law as women, for all women” alarms universalist philosophers. These are the philosophers who think that moral theory should come up with principles which mention no group smaller that “persons” or “human beings” or “rational agents.” Such philosophers would be happier if MacKinnon talked less about accountability to women as women and more about an ideal Minnesota, or an ideal America, one in which all human beings would be treated impartially. Universalists would prefer to think of feminism as Mary Wollstonecraft and Olympe de Gouges did, as a matter of rights which are already recognizable and describable, although not yet granted. This describability, they feel, makes MacKinnon’s hope for a voice saying something never heard before unnecessary, overly dramatic, hyperbolic.” Universalist philosophers assume, with Kant, that all the logical space necessary for moral deliberation is now available — that all important truths about right and wrong can not only be stated, but be made plausible, in language already to hand. I take MacKinnon to be siding with historicists like G. W. F. Hegel and John Dewey, and to be saying that moral progress depends upon expanding this space.”

And quoting Dewey:

“Women have as yet made little contribution to philosophy, but when women who are not mere students of other persons’ philosophy set out to write it, we cannot conceive that it will be the same in viewpoint or tenor as that composed from the standpoint of the different masculine experience of things. Institutions, customs of life, breed certain systematized predilections and aversions. The wise man reads historic philosophies to detect in them intellectual formulations of men’s habitual purposes and cultivated wants, not to gain insight into the ultimate nature of things or information about the make-up of reality. As far as what is loosely called reality figures in philosophies, we may be sure that it signifies those selected aspects of the world which are chosen because they lend themselves to the support of men’s judgment of the worth-while life, and hence are most highly prized. In philosophy, “reality” is a term of value or choice.” (John Dewey, “Philosophy and Democracy,” in Middle Works 11:145)

Thus, it is conceivable that there are differences though not necessarily innate/intrinsic/essential differences, between the categories male and female which in fact impact how each experiences (or causally interacts with) the world/their environment - and if either their epistemological presuppositions AND/OR their ontological commitments differ, it is problematic to say that a logical fallacy is NECESSARILY committed by suggesting that a man’, understanding of a woman’s problem differs from a woman’s understanding of the problem.

gonzo
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  • This has an element of psychological essentialism that makes it weak. Some problem a girl has that she considers a "girls' problem" may be met by someone who is, say gay, or of a servant class, or otherwise aligns with her mentality. They might understand it just as well as any woman who fails to share such alignment. So then the reason to fail to understand any given problem is probably not attributable entirely to sex. This is *likely* to be true, but it is not *logically true*. Politics is not logic, and sensible arguments are not necessarily logically valid. –  Nov 30 '16 at 21:53
  • I am not arguing that the "anti-Kantian/enlightenment-universalist Herderian neo-pragmatist/historicist" is correct in his "anti-Kantian/enlightenment-universalist Herderian neo-pragmatist/historicist"ism, but only that whether he is guilty of a categorical ad hominemic "genetic fallacy," depends upon his epistemological presuppositions. – gonzo Dec 01 '16 at 01:54
  • Since you solicited my thoughts, gonzo: are you saying that, *assuming* the claimant believes the essentialism that jobermark points out, then there's no fallacy? Then it seems you're making a weak claim of internal consistency by offloading the fallacy on to the epistemic position. I won't pretend to be well-read here but again, since you asked for my opinion, you seem to be saying: "we can interpret the position as valid if we evaluated it from an invalid i.e. fallacious epistemology". – commando Dec 04 '16 at 17:49
  • @Commando: Putting aside the essential property v. accidental property debate [ie debate re sortals], the “fallacious epistemology” that you and @ Jobermrk reference, “psychological essentialism,” appears to be the ambiguous notion that [some?] categories have an underlying reality that cannot be observed directly” (see Susan Gelman, Trends in Cognitive Science, 2004. ). ). (Aside: The definition is ambiguous because we do not know what “directly” means, or even whether the word can be given a more precise meaning without dismantling the concept: ... – gonzo Dec 06 '16 at 21:53
  • ...: Think, for instance, of the carbon molecule, which, according to our ontological commitments, consist of carbon atoms, each of which contain six electrons, etc.) In the present context, the real problem with considering all instances of “psychological essentialism,” to constitute “fallacious epistemology,” is that science and its concepts are dynamic/fluid; for instance, there was a time when the reasoning underlying “germ theory” could have been considered “fallacious.” – gonzo Dec 06 '16 at 21:53
  • Which brings us to the reason I asked for you to comment on the instant question, exemplified by your reasonable contention in one of your initial comments to the feminism/transgender question, That, “There are neurological accounts of gender (e.g. 1, see wiki) which do not commit to gender roles. They commit only to the reality of the gender dysphoria/euphoria [that] transfolk face,” in response to @Alexander S King’s statement that, "how can you be trans if there is no such a thing as gender role?" – gonzo Dec 06 '16 at 21:54
  • (His point being, I presume, that transgenderism’s [gender?] dysphoria would seem to represent a discrepancy between one’s behavioral predispositions and the behavioral dispositions deemed appropriate by one’s society/culture to one’s biological sex. Otherwise, how would you [trans folk] know that their biological gender/sex was somehow problematic.) – gonzo Dec 06 '16 at 21:55
  • Your proposition was supported with citations to a Scientific American article (“Is There Something Unique about the Transgender Brain? Imaging studies and other research suggest that there is a biological basis for transgender identity”), and a Wiki article, which provide, respectively: – gonzo Dec 06 '16 at 21:55
  • “…even before treatment the brain structures of the trans people were more similar in some respects to the brains of their experienced gender than those of their natal gender.” … “Trans people have brains that are different from males and females, a unique kind of brain,” Guillamon says. “It is simplistic to say that a female-to-male transgender person is a female trapped in a male body. It's not because they have a male brain but a transsexual brain.” Of course, behavior and experience shape brain anatomy, so it is impossible to say if these subtle differences are inborn.” (Scientific Amer) – gonzo Dec 06 '16 at 21:56
  • “Neuroscience of sex differences is the study of the characteristics of the brain that separate the male brain and the female brain. Psychological sex differences are thought by some to reflect the interaction of genes, hormones and social learning on brain development throughout the lifespan.” (First sentence of Wiki article). ... – gonzo Dec 06 '16 at 21:58
  • So, noting that we agree that there appear to exist neurological differences between (at minimum] female and male brains, we might also agree that you unfairly characterize my answer as avoiding the Scylla of logical invalidity only by invoking the Charybdis of invalid epistemology. I was not resorting to “invalid…fallacious epistemology,” but, rather, a conditional which turns upon validly/reasonably held epistemological and ontological commitments.... – gonzo Dec 06 '16 at 21:58
  • . My point can be paraphrased by saying that IF the neurological differences between a male and a female brain in some way functionally corresponds to the brains understanding of the unidentified subject “girl’s problem” then the subject assertion is valid. Thus the assertion “"You're not a girl, so you can't understand girls problems," while possibly factually inaccurate is not necessarily invalid. (While the Rorty piece I cited is unrelated to our discussion here, you might find it interesting: http://tannerlectures.utah.edu/_documents/a-to-z/r/rorty92.pdf.) – gonzo Dec 06 '16 at 21:59
  • @jobermark Because you are mentioned above, I should invite your commentary. – gonzo Dec 06 '16 at 22:35
  • @gonzo Here we have a problem with the notion of logic, in toto. From a traditional, isolated position that presumes logic is a real thing, and that general agreement is possible, something *partially true* is still *invalid* as a logical argument. Logic is not politics, nor is it semantics or science (Psychological essentialism is partly true -- I will never know the details of *some* aspects of muliebrity, for example, some are very biological and hard to explain accurately. Neither will many transwomen, and some radical feminists argue their claims about gender are thus invalid.) –  Dec 07 '16 at 16:56
  • Making logic dependent on epistemology, however just puts us in a vicious circle. By much of any epistemology, what absolutely can and cannot happen cannot be known this broadly. The speaker here cannot necessarily know there is not some way in which I as an outsider can still have adequate leverage on the problem at hand to constitute understanding in some real sense. They cannot know that the details they think are necessary for argumentation are in fact necessary and no other argument possible from my position might be relevant and determining. –  Dec 07 '16 at 16:58
  • By most modern epistemology, real logic, in the philosophical sense simply does not exist, except as a mathematical construct based upon a historical tradition and an agreement to label 'certainty' as a decision rather than feeling. But then no one would be asking questions about logical fallacies. And we would have no tools with which to attempt to validate the epistemology itself, other than intersubjective negotiation. One answers questions from a context and the context that assumes any kind of logical fallacy at all exists in any way, rules out your answer. –  Dec 07 '16 at 17:09
  • @jobermark I understand what your up to, but what is the difference between my telling a non-mathematician that because she is not a mathematician she cannot understand/get Godel's incompleteness theorem, and my telling her that she cannot understand/get what it is like to be a bat (or, say, bat vision -- in an attempt to dodge the ambiguity of the word "understand"). – gonzo Dec 07 '16 at 18:17
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    "What I am up to?" Really? Anyway... There are *parts* of being a bad we can understand. We do not need to *totally* understand what it is like to be a bat in order to say *anything* about a bat's life. The statement remains too broad. We cannot know what aspects of being a bat are relevant to any given one of a bat's problems. So ruling out our understanding *any* of them is not valid. There is a quantification problem. There are bat problems I cannot understand (existential) does not mean Given a bat problem I cannot understand it (general). –  Dec 07 '16 at 18:22
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    There is only *one* 'what it is like to be a bat' There are *many* 'problems a bat has'. I am done reiterating the obvious. –  Dec 07 '16 at 18:30
  • What part of "... is partly correct" did you miss? You can point out the part that is correct over and over again, and the part that is not will not go away. –  Dec 07 '16 at 18:36
  • @jobermark You did not answer the question. And I never said anything as broad as you suggest in your last sentence. What I did say above is that "...IF the neurological differences between a male and a female brain in some way functionally corresponds to the brains' understanding of the UNIDENTIFIED subject “girl’s problem” THEN the subject assertion is valid [ie neither formally nor informally invalid]. By the way one of your stock phrases is the truism "politics is not logic". Why so? – gonzo Dec 07 '16 at 18:37
  • That is just off topic. It has nothing to do with the utterance under consideration. The unidentified subject is plural and open in quantification. There are some problems of girls which I can understand, so the utterance under consideration remains false. I don't need to answer impossible questions unrelated to the actual problem at hand. If you want to ask that as a question, I will promise to make some effort to answer. But in this context you are just pushing nonsense. –  Dec 07 '16 at 18:37
  • Politics is not logic because it has data and context. Logic has only premises and forms. If you don't think that is a meaningful distinction, you simply do not believe in logic as the sort of discipline that actually allows for the existence of named logical fallacies. That is the point of an entire comment you obviously did not actually read. I am not here to spew out crap you intend to ignore. –  Dec 07 '16 at 18:40
  • @jobermark No need to get nasty and curse, bro... I fully understand and appreciate the patent difference between logic and content driven endeavors/praxes. That's why I called it a truism. But you use the proposition quite often. So I wonder whether you frequently find yourself in discussions where logic and politicking are confused with one another. Or do you simply find that deploying logic to test the validity of political statements to be out of bounds, maybe ala Rorty, who seeks to replace objectivity with solidarity. – gonzo Dec 07 '16 at 19:06
  • 'Crap' is cursing? This is the context. Many, many of the 'fallacy' questions here are about someone saying something that uses unstated political premises, that we should not waste people's time, that certain generalizations are offensive even when valid, etc... So folks who accept those premises say there is no fallacy. But a missing premise is exactly what a fallacy points out. The statement can be fallacious and true because the missing premises are actually valid most of the time. And that is somehow something people are just incapable of getting used to. –  Dec 07 '16 at 19:10
  • Although I am often in group arguments (e.g. design interface meetings or committees trying to draft epistles) where a lot of emotion is raised over a missing premise to which the parties can actually agree in some form, and as an erstwhile mathematician, this is always painfully obvious to me, and as an erstwhile therapist, I am pained by the resulting pointless posturing. –  Dec 07 '16 at 19:14
  • Also, seriously, we are writing a lot here, and if you are just skipping over what I am saying, I am going to inform you that I feel you are being lazy. I know that is not 'nice' enough for this forum. But it is, in my book, the right thing to do. –  Dec 07 '16 at 19:19
  • Gotcha. I think - since some of what you say is a shorthand that may elude me. I agree that a problem with contemporary [postmodern] political correctness and identity politics is that the use of many categories, or certain premises, is forbidden, or out of bounds. So many "political" problems, because without the forbidden categories one cannot articulate them precisely and comprehensively, simply cannot be adequately addressed. – gonzo Dec 07 '16 at 19:25
  • The content I am complaining about you not taking in also answers this question. You can go too far trying to be right. When I am discussing logic, I accept the ground rules, despite their being oversimplifications, until there is a real impasse. I agree to some degree with the premise, but if you don't think you can be right, except in context, it is childish to not just *adapt to the context*. I realize that is an implicitly minority-hostile sentiment, but one has to live. –  Dec 07 '16 at 19:25
  • Again, your shorthand is often so extreme that I have a difficult time following the thread. But your point that "The unidentified subject is plural and open in quantification" was well taken. And I get "adapt to the context" -- in Wittgensteinian terms, accept the hinge proposition, the form of life, the language game, whether "justified" or not. – gonzo Dec 07 '16 at 19:35
  • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been [moved to chat](http://chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/49754/discussion-on-answer-by-gonzo-what-kind-of-fallacious-reasoning-is-youre-not-a). – commando Dec 07 '16 at 21:27
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It's a fallacy. I don't understand the user who says it's not.

Although I'm not sure what it's labeled. It might be the genetic fallacy or perhaps a kind of false appeal to authority.

This person is basically making questionable assumptions and implying they're factual: That if you are a girl, then you would understand "girls problems". Not that you would have these problems, or experience them, and not that you would understand your own specific problems as a girl, but that you would understand "girls problems." Nor is this given as a kind of probability (based on, say, the idea of familiarity with problem is more likely to give you understanding of it). No, you're not told that you may not but that you simply "can't".

Before I proceed, I should note that this fallacy is quite common in its more general form. For instance, does your doctor have to be a smoker to understand your problems as a smoker? Do you have to be disabled to understand a disabled person's problems? Could a Muslim scholar possibly know more about Jewish people's problems than your average Jewish person? For a researcher to write a paper on homeless children, does it require that she have been homeless as a child herself?

But I don't think the mere experiencing of some issue, or familiarity with it, for instance me as a man being exposed to messages in the media about what a man should act like (e.g. not talk about feeling, etc) somehow makes me actually understand these problems. If so, then I would refuse to read a book written by a female psychologist who tries to help men understand their problems better. But I would read such a book if her claim to "understanding" is based on actual authority and expertise, having studied and conducted quality research the issue (there are other criteria too, but let's not get into that).

In my view, it is also fallacious to talk about "girls problems" as if all girls shared the same ones. While there are naturally some similarities, there is also a lot of variation. Just as a black man in Manhattan has experience and understanding of racism that is likely different in important ways from a black man living in Freetown (Sierra Leone). In fact, what is more surprising to me is how often very similar people living in similar situation seem to have different perception and understanding of what seems to me to be the same problem.

I like to end on a lighter note. It's not (generally) a crime to commit a fallacy. :) Sometimes people say one thing, mean another, and what we actually perceive is yet another thing. Language is not exact and people (myself included) are not very careful with what they say. It may be that the person here had none of this in mind and was just reacting to what may have been an unsympathetic comment. You're probably thinking, "Some lighter note...the guy ends by accusing me!" No, I'm just saying that whenever we analyze a fallacy based on a single comment, it's limited. We need context to truly understand the tone and intention. But as it stands, it can serve as an exercise in logic. It'd be fun to analyze political statements (which are much more carefully worded) and it's shocking how much fallacy is out there.

Jlente
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  • You got the conditional backwards. I think you meant to take the contrapositive of OP's statement. – Era Dec 01 '16 at 16:21
  • Ah, yes, that's true, the person was suggesting (if we consider the contrapositive) that if OP DID understand girls problems then he'd be a girl, not the opposite (only girls understand girl problems) which I was trying to say is false. Thanks. – Jlente Dec 01 '16 at 21:37