I'd like to give a different kind of answer than the ones above, in the hope of shedding light on your question from a different angle: rather than talk about the subject matter of teleological arguments and anthropic principles, I'll just say a bit about how arguments work.
"Fallacy" is a term we use to describe how an argument fails to be logically valid - that is, how the premises fail to entail the conclusion. For instance, I might say, "A implies B; B; therefore A." We call this "the fallacy of affirming the consequent" in order to communicate where that argument went wrong. If that second premise had been "A" rather than "B," we would have had a valid argument with the conclusion "B."
So "fallacy" is only a good term to use insofar as the thing you're talking about is purported to be a deductive argument. But the argument you gave in your question does not have a form anything like a deductively valid argument, so (even if it is indeed an invalid argument in some way) it will be hard to say where exactly a fallacy lies, or what it is - hence the multiplicity of answers here.
Or, to speak more generally, since it's hard to say exactly what the argument that you're asking about is, it's also hard to say what, if anything, is wrong with it. If, as your tags suggest, you're interested in the logic of this question as well as the subject matter, you'll have to be a bit more specific.
EDIT: I don't say this, by the way, just to be pedantic. Some versions of the teleological argument are logically valid, and others are not. I'm of the opinion that you'll have the most fruitful and enlightening discussion only after you've figured out what sort of argument you're evaluating.
