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If we let Fx denotes that which has the property of being a unicorn, and Gx denotes that which has the property of being beautiful, then this proposition would be signified by the following:

∀x(Fx→Gx)

Obviously, we know unicorns don't exist, so this sentence should, at least intuitively, be false. But in terms of logic, Fx is false (because nothing bearing the property of unicorn exists); so in terms of a material condition, since the antecedent is false, this proposition would be true!

I thought of this when I was pondering the idea of a vacuous truth, because this seems like an instance of that. But is this proposition true? That's what I am inclined to believe, but I am not certain.

AndriuZ
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    "Obviously, we know (sic) unicorn doesn't exist..." But do we? What evidence do you have? – gnasher729 Aug 30 '15 at 09:30
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    @gnasher729 of course we do: unicorns are legendary animals with magical properties. We know legendary animals don't exist for real. – Quentin Ruyant Aug 30 '15 at 13:44
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    I don't know about you, but *I've* never seen an ugly unicorn. – PyRulez Aug 30 '15 at 18:03
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    @quen_tin: Slow down, cowboy. No definition of "unicorn" was given in the question, so I assume the definition "horse-like animal with a single horn on its head". No limitation of the area was given. With the possibility, or even likelihood, that there are millions or billions of earth-like planets with earth-like life, it is quite likely that there is a place somewhere, nobody knows how far away from us, where unicorns exist. – gnasher729 Aug 30 '15 at 18:11
  • @gnasher729 if you see a horse-like animal with a single horn on its head, how would you know it's a unicorn (I mean the unicorn greeks were talking about) rather than a different spiecie that looks like unicorns? You cannot, and that's why "horse-like animal with a horn" is not the proper definition of a unicorn. – Quentin Ruyant Aug 30 '15 at 19:32
  • @gnasher729 and if you find such animal on a distant planet, well insofar as they have no parenthood with any animal on earth, they cannot be unicorns. – Quentin Ruyant Aug 30 '15 at 19:34
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    Where does it say that is a requirement? Where does this "unicorns the greeks were talking about" come from? I think there is a huge fallacy here called "moving the goal post". – gnasher729 Aug 30 '15 at 20:47
  • No no, if we speak the same language we must share the same meaning, and it includes the greeks (as the term comes from the greek). I'm just making the point Kripke made against descriptivism with strong arguments: kind terms are not properly defined by definite descriptions. – Quentin Ruyant Aug 30 '15 at 21:17
  • For example if you define tiger as an animal with stripes, you'll find tigers with no stripes, and so on. – Quentin Ruyant Aug 30 '15 at 21:20
  • This appears to be very much what Russell's theory of descriptions was motivated to deal with. – jimpliciter Aug 30 '15 at 22:40
  • @jimpliciter if this is an answer to my comment, I would rather say it's the reason why Russell's theory was abandonned. – Quentin Ruyant Aug 31 '15 at 07:55
  • The classical example to get at this problem is “The present king of France is bald” It's better in several ways. – Relaxed Aug 31 '15 at 16:21
  • @quen_tin: It doesn't matter where a word comes from, what matters is what it means today. "Unicorn" has been used for "horse-like animal with a horn on its hand" in many places in recent literature. And here's a picture of a _real_ unicorn (a unicorn according to a dictionary definition that you may not have been aware of): http://www.horsedrawnoccasions.co.uk/services/unicorn-hire/ which changes the answer to the question to "well, it's a matter of taste"/ – gnasher729 Aug 31 '15 at 17:04
  • @gnasher729 I hope you're aware that these are horses disguised as unicorn, not *real* unicorns... You're only strengthening my point. (Note: the uses you're refering to are still providing descriptions of unicorns, not the meaning of the word) – Quentin Ruyant Aug 31 '15 at 17:38
  • @quen_tin Kripke's rigid designation for natural kinds is highly controversial http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/rigid-designators/#ObjAppRigTerForKinPro, unicorns are not a natural kind, and even Kripke accepts definite descriptions for fictions. Sharing language does not require "same meaning", whatever that is, only common usage, and there is no "proper" one, prescriptive grammar consistently failed. – Conifold Aug 31 '15 at 20:14
  • @Conifold rigid designators might be controversial but descriptivism is definitely abandonned. Kripke argued precisely that unicorns cannot exist, for the reasons I just gave. – Quentin Ruyant Aug 31 '15 at 20:57
  • @quen_tin Abandoned by whom? In what context? Soames's "semantic enrichment" is a hybrid of descriptivism with rigid designation, and Kripke's arguments even for proper names are based on observing linguistic habits for interpreting counterfactuals. In contexts not related to psychology of language, scientific or fictional, descriptivism may well be more suitable than rigid designation even for proper names. One is certainly free to use names as stand-ins for descriptions if one so chooses, "number 2" is used that way in arithmetic. – Conifold Aug 31 '15 at 22:59
  • According to Burgess, Kripke's leading interpreter:"*Kripke concedes that typically at baptism the object baptized is picked out by description... Kripke concedes that in transmission the object the earlier user is using the name to name may be picked out by description, as in baptism... But Kripke insists that **in general** the name is not acquired together with any uniquely identifying descriptive information...*" https://books.google.com/books?id=0cjeEHZkoEkC&source=gbs_navlinks_s – Conifold Aug 31 '15 at 23:23
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    @Conifold hybrid theories are not descriptivism. Kripke's arguments against plain descriptivism are still valid, even if pure direct reference has problems too. – Quentin Ruyant Sep 01 '15 at 08:57
  • @quen_tin Hybrid theories are as much descriptivist as they are Millianist, descriptivism of Russell was replaced by clusterism and massaged before and after Kripke, "plain descriptivism" is just a convenient strawman, and Frege-Russell arguments against Millianism are also still valid. At the moment there is no theory of meaning that can deal with all contexts, and most likely none exists because the usage is inconsistent, "*speakers intuit the way they do because of “semantic blindness"*". http://tedsider.org/papers/revenge.pdf – Conifold Sep 02 '15 at 00:11
  • @Conifold I agree with some of your points but according to hybrid theories descriptions (or clusters) are there to refer to the causal source of the descriptions, not to the descriptions themselves and that makes all the difference when it comes to know if unicorns exist: "unicorn" is *not* equivalent to "horse-like animal" with horns. http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/reference/#HybThe that's my point from the begining, I'm not defending one specific theory of meaning. – Quentin Ruyant Sep 02 '15 at 07:39
  • @quen_tin Since "unicorns" were never anchored to a Millian referent rigidity for them is problematic, they are more like Neptune before the discovery, in perpetual baptism, so clustering around "angelic horse with a horn", etc. is not unfitting. Also, skepsis of descriptions is not widely shared by linguists, or by psychologists. – Conifold Sep 02 '15 at 23:42
  • "*definite descriptions constitute a core device for managing reference in natural language*" https://www.academia.edu/1521928/Two_Kinds_of_Definites_Cross-linguistically "*in the last thirty years, the implicit theoretical assumption that what falls under a concept is determined by description has never been seriously challenged*" http://www.yale.edu/cogdevlab/aarticles/basicunitsthought.pdf "*fair to interpret this silence as rejection of the position that adjectives and verbs might be nondescriptional*" http://archive.org/stream/studiesinlinguis281998univ/studiesinlinguis281998univ_djvu.txt – Conifold Sep 02 '15 at 23:47
  • 1st link: Wait... Of course definite descriptions like "the dog on the left" exist, and manage reference in most language! That's not to say the meaning of individual terms can be replaced by description. 2nd link: psychology might say we associate concepts to mental files or something. That's irrelevant to *meaning* in philo of language, which is *not* a mental entity. – Quentin Ruyant Sep 03 '15 at 19:01
  • If meaning were a mental entity, we could not talk of trees we would fail to recognize in practice, or "whale" would have change meaning once we classified them as mammals rather than fishes... So mental content is *not* the subject. – Quentin Ruyant Sep 03 '15 at 19:03
  • Anyway this 2nd link doesn't seem to defend descriptivism, and none of your links actually. 3rd link: your quotation says "defenders of direct reference probably didn't apply it to verbs and adjectives, only to nouns". Well perhaps, but how is it relevant to our discussion? Then the article defends a form of pragmatism, which is an important development in philo of language, but nothing to restore Russell or Frege's descriptivism. – Quentin Ruyant Sep 03 '15 at 19:20
  • @quen_tin Psychologists/linguists rely on empirical evidence rather than on modal intuitions and metaphysical possibility. Whether usage is sensible and consistent across contexts is best left to linguistic studies, rather than to musings over sentences. As with Aristotle, too much speculation, too little observation. For all their flaws, description clusters are used to manage reference, and to analyze usage. Descriptivism (broadly) doesn't need restoring, it was never displaced. It does need viable alternatives, but empirically driven and beyond proper names. "Kripke-Putnam... offer no aid". – Conifold Sep 04 '15 at 03:24
  • @Conifold I don't think so. – Quentin Ruyant Sep 04 '15 at 07:08

8 Answers8

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This specific case is indeed a vacuous truth. A vacuous truth is "a statement that asserts that all members of the empty set have a certain property".

It takes three forms:

  • ∀ x : P(x) → Q(x)     where ∀ x : ¬P(x)
  • ∀ x ∈ P : Q(x)          where P = ∅
  • ∀ ξ : Q(ξ)                  where ξ is a type with no representatives

Your case is the first one. Note that we can define the set P as {x : P(x)} to get to the second form, or define the type ξ : Unicorn to arrive at the third form, and that they are thus intuitively all equivalent.

And yes, since your proposition is a vacuous truth, it is, well, true.

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    It depends on the semantic analysis of the sentence, including pragmatic aspects (do we presuppose the existence of unicorns when uttering the sentence? Should presuppositions be translated in logical form?) and one's view on existence and reference, in particular that of fictitious objects (Meinong vs Russell vs Kripke). The analysis provided in the question (a predicate for unicorns) is one among many. Depending on the accounts, the sentence can be interpreted as true (vacuously or not), false or meaningless. – Quentin Ruyant Aug 30 '15 at 14:01
  • @quen_tin naturally. Since I considered the unicorns just an example for the common form ∀ x : P(x) → Q(x) where ∀ x : ¬P(x), I didn't mention that in the answer. –  Aug 30 '15 at 15:16
  • @quen_tin Could you please explain the cases where the sentence is considered false or meaningless. – Jo Wehler Aug 30 '15 at 19:58
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    @JoWehler for example one could analyse the sentence "unicorns are beautiful" as presupposing that there are unicorns and translate it as (exists x) Px & (for all x) Px->Qx. I think Russell proposed similar things to fit better natural language use. Or one could say that "unicorn" does not refer to anything in the world, so "Px" is meaningless. – Quentin Ruyant Aug 30 '15 at 20:39
  • @JoWehler I'm not sure about the latter (it seems counterintuitive to say "x is a unicorn" is meaningless) but I think I remember some defended similar analysis with proper nouns (attributing properties to a nonexistent object would be meaningless). I don't really have time to check that's why I didn't write a full answer. – Quentin Ruyant Aug 30 '15 at 20:44
  • @JoWehler there is also Meinong who would differentiate between logical existence and actual existence, and say that there are unicorns, and they are beautiful, but they don't exist. – Quentin Ruyant Aug 30 '15 at 21:01
  • I agree completely with Russell's interpretation and his formalization of the intended meaning of the statement about unicorns. Of course, the formalized statement has the truth value false. - Your hint to Meinong looks for me like the usual distinction between the concept *unicorn* and its extension, which is the empty set. Like you I do not consider meaningless a concept with empty extension and statements about it. Because there are concepts which are not contradictory and hence may have a non-empty extension. Then we can look what experience tells us about their actual extension. – Jo Wehler Aug 30 '15 at 21:44
  • @JoWehler one important point is that Russell had a theory of description for concepts and proper nouns (making them equivalent to a set of descriptions) but that theory is now abandoned in the philosophy of language, mainly because of Kripke's arguments in favour of direct reference (in "naming and necessity"). If kind terms are supposed to refer directly to a (hypothetical) natural kind then maybe the analysis should be different. – Quentin Ruyant Aug 31 '15 at 08:07
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    @JoWehler Someone like Strawson who held, in his "On Referring" that sentences like "The present King of France is bald." are neither true nor false (I don't think he goes so far as to call them meaningless, but I can't be certain at the moment). It's a case of presupposition failure. The sentence carries this existential presupposition such that when that fails the whole communicative enterprise misfires and nothing is said -- at least nothing truth evaluable...... --->>> – Dennis Aug 31 '15 at 10:53
  • He thinks that the best explanation of these observations is that when uttering “The King of France is bald” we “simply fail to say anything true or false because we simply fail to mention anybody by this particular use of that perfectly significant phrase” (331). The use of "significant" suggests to me that he wouldn't claim such sentences are meaningless. I taught a class on this stuff last semester so have some lecture notes on Russell, Strawson, Frege, etc. If you have questions about them feel free to post questions so I can feel like the work I put into my lecture notes was valuable. . – Dennis Aug 31 '15 at 10:55
  • By this reasoning "all primes are odd" is a vacuous truth unless one is a platonist, because primes "exist" no more than unicorns. And if one is a platonist then unicorns exist no less than primes, so "all unicorns are beautiful" is not a vacuous truth either. I do not see a reasonable interpretation under which this sentence is a "vacuous truth", "formalization" by material conditional combined with physical interpretation of existence completely misses the point. – Conifold Aug 31 '15 at 20:24
  • @Conifold by what reasoning precisely? The OP states the premise for all x, ~P(x). With that premise, the given formalisation is a text book example of a vacuous truth. Without the premise, it would be more tricky. –  Aug 31 '15 at 20:55
  • "Unicorns don't exist [physically]" does not amount to ∀x¬P(x) in this context any more than "primes don't exist physically" amounts to it in arithmetic, otherwise all primes would be vacuously odd. OP makes it a "vacuous truth" by confusing universes of discourse, but even he feels that something went wrong "at least intuitively". – Conifold Aug 31 '15 at 23:37
  • @Conifold from the OP: "But in terms of logic, Fx is false". –  Sep 01 '15 at 06:27
  • Also from the OP, "let Fx denotes that which has the property of being a unicorn", i.e. Fx is a unicorn, and "Fx is false" is nonsense. OP is struggling with logic, making sense of this sentence and assigning truth values, that's why he is asking the question. There are several sensible interpretations of it, "vacuous truth" is just not one of them. – Conifold Sep 02 '15 at 00:44
  • @Conifold I am quite confident that points more towards a misunderstanding of the English language than to such a basic misunderstanding of logic. But, you should ask the OP to confirm. –  Sep 02 '15 at 10:38
  • Here are some options: 1) unicorns do exist because the relevant universe of discourse isn't physical; 2) unicorns do not exist but the conditional is not material but counterfactual, and is not determined by truth values of its terms. In both cases the real issue comes to light, namely the ambiguity of both "unicorns" and "beauty", rather than the red herring of "vacuous truth". One can go with unicorns of angelic definition, and infer beauty from the concept, or horse-with-a-horn definition, and draw an ugly unicorn. OP intuitions are met and 1) does not even require non-classical logic. – Conifold Sep 03 '15 at 00:17
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A good way to look at this is through the concepts that Frege introduced - sense (sinn) and reference (bedeutung).

The question becomes whether the proposition

All unicorns are beautiful

has sense and reference: one can ask whether the proper names - unicorn and beautiful refer; one can argue that these names occur in the corpus of written works, that they also occur in speech, that they are not arbitrary strings of letters; thus they refer, but to what? and how?

A unicorn does not occur in the world; but in a fictional world; and in these fictional worlds things are described as beautiful or ugly ie they are the properties of fictional objects.

This is their reference; but what then is their sense?

For a proposition to gain meaning it is not sufficient to focus solely on its logical form; and nor is it enough to gain an understanding of its truth by way of what this proposition refers to in the world - real or fictive; but also by what these words - unicorn and beautiful mean - this is their sense.

Note: a vacuous truth is a proposition that adds nothing to our understanding; that unicorns exist in the fictional world of Narnia, and that there they are considered both wild and beautiful adds to our knowledge of this fictional world.

Thus, it is not a vacuous truth.

A vacuous truth is generally context dependent; it generally means something that is true by reason of its logical form; an example of which is the proposition 'a unicorn is a unicorn'; this is true, but adds nothing to what we didn't know before - thus vacuously true.

Mozibur Ullah
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    Looking at this from the point of view of language also has downsides. For example, *can* we refer to fictional objects, *can* we say something about whether something is beautiful or not, and *if* a sentence doesn't have a sense, what does that actually mean for its truth value? Looking solely from a mathematical perspective, we can actually *prove* the sentence's truth value (the truth value of its formalisation, that is). Nevertheless, +1 for giving an entirely different way of looking at problems like this. –  Aug 30 '15 at 15:42
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    On the latter part: OP is using the premise that no unicorns exist, i.e. there is no x for which P(x) - in that context, this *is* a vacuous truth. See [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vacuous_truth). –  Aug 30 '15 at 15:44
  • @Keelan: agreed, what Frege shows, I think, is that even in logic semantics ie sense still matters. – Mozibur Ullah Aug 30 '15 at 15:45
  • I was about to say something similar to what @Keelan did; that is, wouldn't Kripke object on the ground of there exists another possible world where unicorns have no horns, thus failing the sense of the term 'unicorn' (while the hornless creatures are still clearly unicorns)? But I guess this is far too complicated to be discussed here? – Constantly confused Aug 30 '15 at 15:49
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    @maks: why not ask a question with that in mind, and with this question or answer as a reference - and see what happens? I think the short answer though would be that fictional worlds aren't possible worlds. – Mozibur Ullah Aug 30 '15 at 16:09
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    @DanielMak, what would make the "hornless [mythical] creatures clearly unicorns" in another possible world? do they have some property similar to water's h2o? – nir Aug 30 '15 at 18:35
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    @nir That's a good point actually; I didn't think of unicorns as a natural kind term but rather I was thinking of 'unicorns' as a name like Alexander the Great. Nevertheless I am intrigued to see what would Kripke say about fictional entities. – Constantly confused Aug 31 '15 at 03:51
  • @MoziburUllah What I meant was, unicorns are fictional entities in this actual world; but could there be a possible world where unicorns are actual entities? i.e. It is possible that unicorns exist in another world. – Constantly confused Aug 31 '15 at 03:53
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    @daniel maks: David Lewis would think so; but his theory of actually existing plural worlds raised 'incredulous stares' amongst his fellow philosophers when he introduced it. – Mozibur Ullah Aug 31 '15 at 17:06
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    @Daniel Mak On fictional entities Kripke concurs with Frege and Russell, they are definite descriptions, so are "unanchored" names like "planet Vulcan", rigid designation does not apply to artificial kinds like sodas either, and even for natural kinds it is disputed. http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/rigid-designators/#ObjAppRigTerForKinPro – Conifold Aug 31 '15 at 20:51
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Your concern is sound ...

In Aristotle's Logic the inference from :

∀x (Fx → Gx)

to :

∃x (Fx & Gx)

is legitimate. In modern logic, this is not; we say that general terms have existential import.

See the discussion of The Traditional Square of Opposition :

This representation of the four forms is now generally accepted, except for qualms about the loss of subalternation [the above inference]. Most English speakers tend to understand ‘Every S is P’ as requiring for its truth that there be some Ss, and if that requirement is imposed, then subalternation holds for affirmative propositions. Every modern logic text must address the apparent implausibility of letting ‘Every S is P’ be true when there are no Ss. The common defense of this is usually that this is a logical notation devised for purposes of logic, and it does not claim to capture every nuance of the natural language forms that the symbols resemble. So perhaps ‘∀x(Sx → Px)’ does fail to do complete justice to ordinary usage of ‘Every S is P’, but this is not a problem with the logic. If you think that ‘Every S is P’ requires for its truth that there be Ss, then you can have that result simply and easily: just represent the recalcitrant uses of ‘Every S is P’ in symbolic notation by adding an extra conjunct to the symbolization, like this: ∀x(Sx → Px) & ∃xSx.

You can see also Free Logic.

Mauro ALLEGRANZA
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I did my undergrad thesis on fictional characters/objects and truth value so I might be able to help out. It depends on your view of fictional objects.

If you just take a classical logic view of fictional objects (none exist), then the sentence is vacuously true simply because there are no fictional objects. The "x" in "every x" quantifies only over existent objects, since according to this view of logic there are only existent objects in the domain of quantification that "x" represents. Looking at the truth value of the material conditional, then whenever the antecedent is false the conditional is true. So the statement "x is a unicorn" is always false since there is no existent object that is a unicorn, and the statement is always true.

On the Meinongian view, in which there are nonexistent objects for every single set of properties (for example, an object corresponding to the set {unicorn, ugly} exists simply by virtue of the properties existing, so does the set {square, circle} and {square, circle, unicorn, ugly} and so on), the sentence would be false.

On the possibilist view in which fictional statements are true according to a set of possible worlds in which the stories take place, this sentence would be dealt with in the same way as the classical logic view. They assume that an intensional operator is put in front of the sentence "all unicorns are beautiful" and this intensional operator rates the truth value of the sentence according to the world in which the fictional story takes place. But there is no such story in this context, we're merely analyzing the truth value of "all unicorns are beautiful." So it would be vacuously true.

Fictional characters are a huge problem for classical formal semantics, because they just lead to unintuitive results. According to formal semantics, all unicorns are beautiful is vacuously true. But intuitively this is false.

A previous answer stated the following:

A unicorn does not occur in the world; but in a fictional world; and in these fictional worlds things are described as beautiful or ugly ie they are the properties of fictional objects.

According to these views in which there is an intensional operator in front of this sentence, the intensional operator is determined by the context. In this context, there is no intensional operator because we're not talking about any particular story! So this sentence turns out to be vacuously true even if we take the possible world semantics view.

Nephenee
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  • What if the context is the set of all fiction that the speaker and listener share in common knowledge? This is a sort of meta-story encompassing the bounds of imagination explored up to this point among those discussing the statement, wherein the beauty of unicorns might well be defined in a non-vacuous, albeit fictional, way. – Dan Bryant Aug 31 '15 at 20:34
  • If you read Lewis's "Truth in Fiction," he argues that the set of possible worlds has to be one with a connection to the author of the story. For Sherlock Holmes, for example, there's a world in which the Holmes stories take place as real events and Conan Doyle is Sherlock Holmes's biographer. But since there is no author here, there is no story here, there's no way to determine which set of possible worlds the sentence "all unicorns are beautiful" is true in. – Nephenee Aug 31 '15 at 21:50
1

Yes, the proposition is true according to the rules of our normal logic. As you already write: For all entities x holds F(x) is false. And according to the rule ex falso quodlibet the implication

F(x) => G(x) is true.

Of course, by the same means one can prove also: All unicorns are ugly.

Note. There exist non-standard logics like paraconsistent logic which abolish the principle ex falso quodlibet.

Jo Wehler
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If you consider unicorns to be mythical, non-existing creatures, then the proposition is true.

If you consider unicorns to be rumoured creatures for whose existence no evidence has been found yet, then we can say that no observations have been made yet that contradict the proposition, but it is not proven.

Consider the proposition "all yetis are beautiful". There will be many people who seriously claim that the proposition is false. And some will say that yetis are beautiful in their own unique way :-)

gnasher729
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The context of the statement is critical. What viewpoint are we looking at? To some people, unicorns are literally metaphors for something unattainable. To others, they're literally a horse-like being that probably doesn't exist. And there are probably thousands of other equally-valid definitions. Beauty is in the eye of the beholder, so it's almost guaranteed that for any unicorn considered beautiful, another person considers it homely, if not outright hideous.

If we're taking the entire set of all things considered unicorns by any person, then asking each person who has considered one of those unicorns whether said unicorn is beautiful, it is highly likely there is at least one instance of a non-beautiful unicorn. Of course, "highly likely" is undefined in strict Boolean-style logic, so your proposition breaks unless it allows for fuzzy truths. (I'll help you out here though: I did not consider the unicorn in Oblivion to be beautiful, which means the above set definitely contains at least one counter-example, so the statement must evaluate to false.)

On the other hand, we can apply any combination of definitions of both unicorns and beauty, which means we can come up with sets for which the proposition definitely evaluates true, and other sets for which it is definitely false.

At the end of the day, this is one of those many "yes or no" questions for which neither "yes" nor "no" is a valid answer.

MichaelS
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I'm a bit dismayed the truth table hasn't made it somewhere in the thread already, so here it is:

Fx  |  Gx  | Fx→Gx
-------------------
0   |  0   |   1
0   |  1   |   1
1   |  0   |   0
1   |  1   |   1

I think the other answers have focused on the bottom line of the truth table. All unicorns are beautiful(but, mind you, there are no unicorns). So I won't go further on that.

The more interesting part, to me, is the top two lines. When Fx is false(meaning we're dealing with something that's not a unicorn), Gx can be anything. x could be beautiful, or it could be ugly. ∀x(Fx→Gx) simply says "For all x where x is a unicorn, x is also beautiful". It says nothing about things that aren't unicorns. Assuming unicorns don't exist(there are several definitions in which they do exist), then it turns into something along the lines of "For all x, x can be ugly or beautiful".

This has the bonus of suggesting that everything in existence is either beautiful or ugly.

Shaz
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    With all due respect, I think this is so basic all / most of the other answers use this implicitly. Also, I wouldn't say "beautiful or ugly" which is an interpretation. Strictly, it would only suggest "beautiful or not beautiful". –  Aug 31 '15 at 20:14
  • @Keelan I added the truth table because the OP said "since the antecedent is false, this proposition would be true!" The proposition _is_ true, and all you need is the truth table to see it. That OP is asking this question suggests they don't know the truth table or forgot it. But a point of confusion is that the consequence Gx could be true or false, and the overall proposition is still true. One other answer addresses that, but only briefly. Given that questions on SE range from novice to expert, and this is a fairly basic question, I think it's worth addressing basic concepts. – Shaz Aug 31 '15 at 20:34
  • @Ryan Actually, knowing the truth table is structured that way is exactly why I asked it - because I know in logic it would be true, but it is too counterintuitive and also there is a concern of the non-existent referent (of unicorn). Otherwise I wouldn't say I know it is true. I asked this question because while I am fairly certain I know how a logician views this, I am not too sure if the same is true for a language philosopher. – Constantly confused Sep 01 '15 at 15:35