In this question I suggested that logic is almost only ever used in philosophy as a means to present an argument. By implication, I meant that every formal argument can be stated informally, and that the two are usually studied / presented side by side.
Is it true that symbolic logic as it appears in philosophy is always one way of stating something among others?
And how often does a formal language appear in the literature without that explanation?
I am not suggesting that formalization has no use, indeed it can help the reader follow the argument. But has anything appeared in contemporary philosophy itself as a direct result of symbolic logic, even appeared with that language as a necessary condition?
Thank you.