1

From this question I read that modal cadences are different from tonic cadences.

I'm trying to learn Dorian mode and I noted that in the answer they offer the suggestion of the second chord, first inversion followed by the tonic chord.

In Dorian, you would use ii6(5)-i. (Ex. Em(7)/G-Dm)

My question is. Is this the only modal candence for Dorian?

IE. May I use also the ii without inversions? And is there other type of cadences in Dorian (IE in tonic I know 4 cadences - Perfect, Plagal, Imperfect and Interrupted), is there any similar in modal cadences?

Jack Mariani
  • 113
  • 3
  • What kind of "modal" music? folk, jazz, or medieval? – Michael Curtis Apr 27 '20 at 18:38
  • I was aiming at Celtic. – Jack Mariani Apr 27 '20 at 18:45
  • 1
    I’m afraid my answer has been posted before you said *I was aiming at Celtic*. But I can’t tell what would be different. What we shouldn’t forget is music theory is more opinion based then we would believe. There have been different modes in different times. This means the modes have changed in melodic and harmonic respects. e.g. the sharpened 7th degree wasn’t use in the earliest eras. – Albrecht Hügli Apr 28 '20 at 12:25
  • You also have a plagal cadence, from IV to I (G to Dm). – tiniuclx Apr 27 '20 at 22:51

1 Answers1

1

Actually I miss a discussion about the statements in the linked question. ii6 - i ... how you are quoting would be a plagal cadence. The authentic cadence is: v-i (am-dm ... and as there was also in times of medieval music already a leading tone in many cases the perfect cadence was i-iv-V-i. (dm-gm-A-dm or ii6 instead of iv.)

Excerpt of In Praise of Harmony: The Teachings of Abbé Georg Joseph Vogler

enter image description here

Albrecht Hügli
  • 25,410
  • 1
  • 21
  • 58
  • This answer goes totally against what I found in the [other question](https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/7111/do-different-modes-have-the-same-cadence-structure/86129#86129), that specifies: `Modes use modal approaches by character emphasis. In fact, if you want to give a more modal approach, no V-I, IV-I, V-i, iv-i, or v-i is appropriate here.` But the cited text gives a specific source. – Jack Mariani Apr 28 '20 at 06:54
  • All I can say to this is: music theory is more opinion based than most other sciences. It makes only sense to discuss an approach if you cite any theory and name the source of it like I did here. (Have Michael Curtis ‘ comment on the question “* Es wird wirklich mühsam, alle Orte zu verfolgen, an denen @MaikaSakuranomiya immer wieder diese fehlerhafte Liste von "Modalkadenzen" veröffentlicht. Das ist die Erfindung einer Person und für modale Harmonie nicht im entferntesten üblich*”. – Albrecht Hügli Apr 28 '20 at 12:07