So I'm trying to wrap my head around intervals. I know that, for instance, a major chord is made up by the fundamental (I), a perfect third (III) and a perfect fifth (V). So, the "important" third interval is called major, but the fifth is called perfect. I've searched for why it is that, and I found two possible explanations:
- in the natural temperament (IIUC, way back to Pythagoras), a fifth is perfect in the sense it is in a very very simple ratio with the fundamental (3:2). This makes the waveform simpler than the third, which in a sense is then "less perfect" then the fifth interval.
- in the usual arrangement of notes (diatonic scale, C D E F G A B), the distance covering a perfect fifth is almost always that of free diatonic notes (except for B - F#), whereas with the thirds this is not the case. So the term "perfect" refers to "how well this nomenclature fits well with the way we chose to call the important (diatonic) notes".
Now, are those examples correct? Historically, do you know which is the reason the names "perfect" and "major" were distinguished (as if they were two different things)?
Thanks!
EDIT: this is indeed a duplicate question. After being redirected to the relevant previous ones, it turned out the answer is not completely certain, but most probably the number 1: "perfect fifth" is a term much more tied to the frequencies of the sounds than to the names of the notes; moreover, the terms "major" and "minor" arose from they being not perfect, in the previous sense, and they refer to the longer and shorter third. Thanks to the community!