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A perhaps naive characterization of verisimilitude is "closeness to truth," the proximity coming from the similarity. At least, the SEP article uses, "The number of planets is 9," as an illustrative example of a verisimilar claim modulo, "The number of planets is 8," as the correct option. So anyway, this is where I'm lost:

  1. Suppose that the question, "How many truth values are there?" is a legitimate/open/w/e question, with an answer scheme, "There are n truth values."
  2. Now, at first I thought that setting n = 0 would be foolish, but then I thought maybe that this could be construed as the case where the whole theory of truth-as-a-referent is as such denied.
  3. The case n = 1 would be a case of a negation-free logic, I think. Equivalently, a logic with only one (positive) truth value would be exhaustively trivial, or expressive of the concept of triviality, or whatever, e.g. as with the explosion function in classical logic vis-a-vis noncontradiction. A theory with an empty or negative truth value would arguably dissolve into the case of n = 0, or maybe it represents an important alternative in the theory of negation; who knows, for now it's not relevant(!).
  4. So the minimal nontrivial-and-possible value for n would be 2, but there are worked-out cases for n = 4 or even 16, say.
  5. There's a Łukasiewicz logic with countably-many truth values, and then fuzzy logic has Continuum-many.
  6. Suppose, then, that the correct value for n is 4. This answer to the initial question is then closer to the trivial/antipossible answers, "n = 0," and, "n = 1," than it is to the Łukasiewiczian answers. But so here, still, "n = 2 or 3," is closer to the truth, too, than the infinitary values for n. Therefore, all the finite-valued wrong answers are closer to the right answer than any of the infinite-valued ones. So, e.g., "n = 0," is closer to the truth than, "n = |ω|."
  7. Or suppose that the correct answer is n = 2|ω| (fuzzy logic). Now, in the ordinal interval [0, a], for a = any countable ordinal (finite or infinite), there are fewer ordinals than in [a, 2|ω|]. So in fact, if the fuzzy-logic answer is right, then every lower answer is as far from correct as any other. Worse, if the right answer were, "n = |ω|," then the fuzzy-logic answer would be uncountably far from the truth, and all finite options would only be countably far away, so it would be as if the uncountable answer had less verisimilitude than any finite answer.

Does the concept of verisimilitude not apply to questions like, "How many truth values there are?" because either (A) that is not an empirical question or (B) even if it is, a decision (in constructing a theory) about the number of truth values will end up preceding a theory of verisimilitude itself? By comparison, perhaps the question, "Which theory of truthlikeness is most like the true such theory?" cannot be well-posed.


In case you're allergic to the alephs and omegas, substitute "2n + 1" in the recipe of the problem as of (6). E.g., if, "n = 4," is correct, then, "n = 9," is farther from the truth than, "n = 0." Or if you want to omit, "n = 0 or 1," from consideration, reformulate the (6)-problem in terms of "2n - 1" (this means e.g. that, "n = 2," is the lowest possible-but-false answer, and is two steps away from the truth, so that an answer more than two steps from the truth is more falsimilar than, "n = 2," with, "n = 7," being the minimal more-falsimilar option).

Kristian Berry
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    Since verisimilitude is measured by some sort of distance between possible and actual worlds and logic and mathematics are typically fixed across the worlds the concept trivializes for them. A platonist can, of course, hold that there is "one true math/logic", vary them across the worlds and get a non-trivial verisimilitude for them as well. – Conifold May 03 '23 at 18:01
  • @Conifold I wish I could follow the idea more closely. They use something like, "The number of planets is greater than or equal to 0," as verisimilar, but then as less so than, "The number of planets is greater than 1"? Yet the first one is true in all possible worlds whereas the second isn't? The SEP article closes off with, "We are all fallibilists now," but so I'm trying to juggle a willingness to accept fallibilism with doubt about the concept of verisimilitude (which the article says is needed for fallibilism, though). – Kristian Berry May 03 '23 at 18:08
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    They distinguish truth and content factors in verisimilitude. It is not enough to just be true, it also has to be informative, i.e. discriminating between the actual and other worlds (this goes back to Popper's ideas about least likely theories that still withstand all attempts at falsification). "Greater than 1" has more content (rules out more worlds) than "greater than or equal to 0", hence more verisimilar if true. – Conifold May 03 '23 at 18:21
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    Specifically in the case of the number of truth values, there is no need to claim that a particular value of n is *the correct value*. The appropriate choice of n depends on the domain of application. Philosophers like to debate whether truth and falsehood constitute a bivalent pairing, but on a more pragmatic and pluralistic understanding of logic, it is the application that matters. – Bumble May 03 '23 at 23:05

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