2

Deductive philosophical arguments are often presented semi-formally as a list of premises and the conclusion (and sometimes combinations of such sub-arguments). What is virtually never stated are the rules inference, probably because they're assumed to be uncontroversial.

E. g. in this argument:

first premise: if there is a chance of snow this weekend, I will not go out.

second premise: there is a chance of snow this weekend.

conclusion: I will not go out

the inference is just made by modus ponens, which can be easily omitted.

But e. g. in this rendering of Descartes' argument for the existence of the soul (Richard Swinburne: "Are We Bodies Or Souls?", p. 72f) :

first premise: I am a substance which is thinking.

second premise: it is conceivable that ‘I am thinking and I have no body’.

third premise: it is not conceivable that ‘I am thinking and I do not exist’.

lemma: I am a substance which, it is conceivable, can exist without a body.

conclusion: I am a soul, a substance, the essence of which is to think.

the rules of inference are not so simple. Certainly what's applied here (modal logic, identity of indiscernibles?) is more powerful and controversial than modus ponens.

But in a highly formal context the rules of inference are always explicitly stated. And there's a trade-off between

  • large number of axioms and weak / simple rules of inference (Hilbert-style)
  • few axioms and powerful rules of inference (natural deduction)

Is it possible to construct an example roughly analogous to these two approaches but for semi-formal philosophical reasoning?

I'm simply looking for a philosophical argument stated in two styles, first with more emphasis on the premises and then with more emphasis on the rules of inference.

viuser
  • 4,505
  • 1
  • 15
  • 49
  • IMO the reconstruction above is quite useless (and maybe not correct). First premise and conclusion are the same, provided the definition of soul=a thinking substance. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Jan 01 '23 at 18:08
  • @MauroALLEGRANZA perhaps it's incorrect. But it's just used as an example here. If you know a better real example of a semi-formal philosophical argument that employs complex and controversial inference, please go ahead and edit my question. – viuser Jan 01 '23 at 18:20
  • There are lots of deductive arguments in e.g. Spinoza and Kant, but IMO you cannot formalize them. – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Jan 01 '23 at 19:54
  • @MauroALLEGRANZA Do you think you could upvote this question? It looks like a worthwhile philosophical question, and upvoting it may help with the quality of this SE (good quality questions should have votes :-) ). – Frank Jan 01 '23 at 20:28
  • @viuser, there are many logical systems such as relevance logic, tense logic, epistemic logic and … which are developed in Hilbert style or natural deduction approach. Analytic philosophers use these systems to formalize their arguments if it is needed, but usually they don't symbolize claims. – Arian Jan 03 '23 at 09:19

0 Answers0