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Is it possible to explain in the future tense? For example, "there will be smoke" because "there will be fire"?

J D
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Richard Bamford
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    I am not sure I understand what the question is. We can indeed do that, for example because the probability of a future event is (almost) certain given some current circumstances. – Nikos M. Jun 16 '22 at 08:25
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    See [Future tense](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Future_tense): "In grammar, a future tense is a verb form that generally marks the event described by the verb as not having happened yet, but expected to happen in the future." – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Jun 16 '22 at 08:45
  • @NikosM. Well if an explanation provides causes for the conclusion, how can a statement about what will happen be considered a cause? – Richard Bamford Jun 16 '22 at 13:42
  • @RichardBamford i did not say any of that. Regardless, someone said "the best way to predict the future is to create it". Hope this helps – Nikos M. Jun 16 '22 at 14:22
  • @RichardBamford thus one can easily say "I will see the show, because I will be there". My original comment is still valid for other similar uses to this. – Nikos M. Jun 16 '22 at 14:34
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    @RichardBamford really it is not different than saying "according to current circumstances even A is certain to happen, and when it happens event B is certain to happen". It is non problematic – Nikos M. Jun 16 '22 at 14:39
  • @NikosM. Ah I see, so we can claim that "there will be fire" represents a cause for "there will be smoke" because we are assuming that it definitely will happened beyond a shadow of doubt? – Richard Bamford Jun 17 '22 at 14:16
  • @RichardBamford yes we can say that when that event is the most expected to be realized (i would not use the phrase "beyond the shadow of doubt"). But it roughly amounts to the same thing. – Nikos M. Jun 17 '22 at 14:21
  • can vary by language. Not a philosophy question – Swami Vishwananda Jun 18 '22 at 09:38

1 Answers1

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Short Answer

Yes, and the future tense broadly segregates classes of explanation according to philosophers; if one presumes uncertainty in one's claims, then the explanation might broadly be considered scientific; if one relies on unjustified beliefs, the explanation might be termed an article of faith or true belief in the sense of the true believer. Both are forms of explanation, but there is a profound philosophical distinction which depends on the intent of the locution of the claim. Such differences hinge upon metaphysical presuppositions of the claimant's epistemological beliefs, what is termed by many as metaepistemology.

Long Answer

If an explanation is proffered in the future tense as a hypothetical, then future tense raises the issue of modality. In this way, one is dealing with an explanatory prediction since the speaker, by context, presumes his own fallibility. For example, if Einstein were to have said, light is going to bend because of my theory, he is working with an implicit or explicit presumption that the claim is open to confirmation, verification, or falsification. This is why among the science-savvy, one often hears lectures on the difference between hypothesis and theory.

Alternatively, however, a speaker may use the future tense presuming their own certainty, and therefore the pragmatic aspect of the locution is meant to be a correspondent truth. An absolutist, for instance, particularly if also a true-believer, may simply give an explanation in the future tense and not make the distinction between past, present, and future in terms of epistemic modality. A claim like that in the extreme might appear as "If you kill in the name of SuchAndSuch, you will be rewarded in the afterlife because InsertFundamentalistDoctrineHere; after all, that is how it has been, how it is, and how it will be." You can see how in such a claim might be considered (right or wrong) incorrigible. Words such as faith, dogma, kool-aid, and ideology are often bandied about in such a context of interpreting epistemological positions.

So, there are two distinct uses of the future tense in practice. The first of them pertains to an open examination of modality be it termed epistemic or alethic. In this sense, future verb tense is very important because placing events or actions in the future makes it uncertain barring some extreme presumption of determinism. Inductive logic is invoked normally in these situations. For example, consider the following claim:

He will arrive at home this evening.

All things being equal, the fact this claim is in the future tense is indicative of a degree of uncertainty. For instance:

He will arrive at home this evening (according to his claim).
He will arrive at home this evening (weather permitting).
He will arrive at home this evening (presuming he isn't arrested). [and so on...]

In this case, explanation should be understood as tentative and indicative of the defeasibility of reason. When one wants to use shiny words to raise this caveat to consciousness, one often sees the phrase ceteris paribus which simply translates as all things being equal or could simply communicated with the adverb 'usually' or 'generally'.

When you hear the caricature "science vs. religion" or "skepticism vs. faith", that is what is being drawn out: the underlying presumptions about modality in relation to the question of metaphysical necessity between the two. Thus, faith can be simplified to the position that truth is contingent upon belief, where as in skepticism, again to do violence to the complexity and nuance, one can define it as belief is contingent upon truth. Interestingly, David Lewis created a fascinating system of belief through his rationalist tendencies termed modal realism. From WP:

Modal realism is the view propounded by David Kellogg Lewis that all possible worlds are real in the same way as is the actual world: they are "of a kind with this world of ours."3 It is based on the following tenets: possible worlds exist; possible worlds are not different in kind from the actual world; possible worlds are irreducible entities; the term actual in actual world is indexical, i.e. any subject can declare their world to be the actual one, much as they label the place they are "here" and the time they are "now".

Thus, the future tense is indicative of modality, and modality metaphysically necessitates alternative "places" of physical reality called possible worlds. This is a perfect example of a rational belief system (thus not susceptible to claims of true belief levied against the claimant) that puts logic before belief as opposed to empirical evidence thus satisfying rationalist claims for justification (and broadly ignoring empirical requirements) of knowledge.

J D
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  • Thanks J D! this helps! Does it apply to arguments too? – Richard Bamford Jun 17 '22 at 16:30
  • Explanation broadly satisfies the question 'why'. Argumentation broadly satisfies the question 'which'. Argumentation over explanation is the 'which why', and explanation of argumentation is the 'why that'. What do they have in common? They're both built out of propositions. Insofar as propositions express the future tense and modality, they apply to any discourse. This is an instantiation of the [principle of compositionality](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principle_of_compositionality). Narrations, explanations, descriptions, and arguments are types of discourse. – J D Jun 17 '22 at 19:35