According to the following sources, sensations originate after association, so what happens before it?
Wordnet - the faculty through which the external world is apprehended
Etymology - 1610s, "a reaction to external stimulation of the sense organs," from French sensation (14c.) and directly from Medieval Latin sensationem (nominative sensatio), from Late Latin sensatus "endowed with sense, sensible," from Latin sensus "feeling" (see sense (n.)). Meaning "state of shock, surprise, in a community" first recorded 1779.
and sense means: Application to any one of the external or outward senses (touch, sight, hearing, etc.) in English first recorded 1520s. Meaning "that which is wise" is from c. 1600. Meaning "capacity for perception and appreciation" is from c. 1600 (as in sense of humor, attested by 1783, sense of shame, 1640s).
I've always understood the process of [sense organs receive stimuli and transfer that 'information' to the brain for processing] as Sensing, and the information conveyed is a Sensation. In other words, sensations happened before getting to the brain, whereas the brain makes sense of them by association. What 'sense' the mind makes of it is a perception, which Association causes, not sensing, which happens beforehand. The word 'information' is being used loosely, since whatever's transmitted from our eyes and ears are different and have no meaning yet, with this understanding of sensations.
So if I've been wrong all of this time, then what is the process called that I've wrongly called sensations? The reason it's important is the need to distinguish between ___ being shared the same by two or more people but perceived by them differently. I have filled in that blank with the word sense, believing that happens before association, but if it happens with association, I'm using the wrong words.
Used in a sentence, "before we can sense what we see, we must _____ first, which includes light received by our eyes and translated into something our minds can make sense of.