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Note: See PART 2 for a better question.

1 kg of matter has infinite number of parts. Infinite number of things together can make an infinite amount of matter. 1 kg is not equal to infinite amount. We face an illogical result.

Note I: The terms 'infinite divisibility' and 'infinitesimal' MAY be related.

In logical explanations, what is the mistake in this argument?


PART 2

Does 1/2+1/4+1/8+1/16+... get over 1? First, we may (wrongly) think that the answer is 'Yes', but actually the answer is 'No'.

A more interesting form of this problem: An amount starts from 0, and increase by every moment. Does it eventually get over 5?

This is the best example of possible mistake of intuition that I faced (I have not examined all examples), and I call it a paradox:

For a long time, the idea that such a potentially infinite summation could produce a finite result was considered paradoxical. - Series (mathematics), Wikipedia

Note II: 'Zeno's paradoxes' and 'Convergent series' may be related.


A possible answer?

I think the answer to both questions may be that 'there is an infinite number of numbers or measurements between 0 and a finite number'.

Koorosh
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The fact that "an infinite number of things together can make an infinite amount of matter" does not suggest that "an infinite number of things together cannot make a finite amount of matter. The first statement is not a logical implication, having an infinite number of things does not imply an infinite amount of matter.

If I have 10 things, they can have 10 kg of mass. If I have 10 things, they can also have a different amount of mass. If I have infinite things, they can have infinite mass. If I have infinite things, they can also have non-infinite mass. There is no contradiction here.

Nuclear Hoagie
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