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Did Nietzsche refer to the disease version of God (the fact that by the days of Nietzsche, Germans had found a cure for neurological Taenia Solium) or is he referring to the political definition of God (a king or an emperor).

In the later case, was he referring to the Chinese (opium war) or the French Bourbon (French Revolution).

The only war that is concomitant to Nietzche's statement are the Opim War or the fall of Napoleon III...

I am inclined to believe in the political version as the Germans had a cure for Taenia Solium long before the XIXth century, at least as a people...

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    Why would Nietzsche mean that they got a cure for a parasite? Why are you sure that these are the only two possibilities, particularly, why can't it be God, as in the only God, the deity of Christianity? – iphigenie May 03 '14 at 16:22

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There once was a religious idea of God: "a single, ultimate, judgmental authority who is privy to everyone's hidden and personally embarrassing secrets". (See the SEP.) I tend to think that Nietzsche referred to that idea.

Since, according to Nietzsche, that idea was killed, it is understandable that you are not familiar with it and might think that he referred to something else.

  • I was trying to read beyond the conventional interpretation (of Nietsche's anti-moralism) and trying to see a geopolitical definition... By experience, we know that most works of philosophy or literature are related to geopolitical events... more than abstract ideas. – mathersjj1 May 03 '14 at 16:40