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When we decide to move an arm, some argue that it is an example of a mental event causing a physical effect. But doesn’t recent science show that free will may be illusory and from a time perspective, the notion of “choosing” to move the arm happens after unconscious reactions have already willed it?

If so, does this technically mean we have never observed a non physical cause causing anything physical? Would the mental event be an effect rather than a cause?

J D
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thinkingman
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    Even without relying on timing, our current understanding of the brain is that it receives sensory input and the chain firing of neurons produces an output based on both this input and the connections between said neurons (which in turn comes from continuous training all along our life). Those are the physical causes of our movements. The idea that anything beyond this physical process is at play is speculative at best. – armand Aug 22 '23 at 03:18
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    'cause' in your 'non physical cause causing anything physical' is a not the *felicitous* word here due to the famous 'causal closure' first principle in metaphysics in the physical realm in the sense that all physical effects have only physical causes. Perhaps 'affect' or 'relate' is more fit... – Double Knot Aug 22 '23 at 04:52
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    Recent science (Libet-style experiments) [did not show that](https://www.discovermagazine.com/mind/libet-and-free-will-revisited):"*Schurger et al.’s work convinced the field. Few neuroscientists now adhere to the original conclusions of the Libet study.*" But even if it did, mental event no more needs to be "free" to be a cause than a falling domino needs to be "free" to be the cause of the next domino falling. Not to mention that we never *observe* causing at all, physical or non-physical, as already Hume pointed out. It is a theoretical relation which we *infer* when the theory warrants it. – Conifold Aug 22 '23 at 05:07
  • Sure but no one would call some random air molecule whizzing in the room before the domino falls and attribute it as the cause. One must show how a mental event has a causal impact on the movement of a hand, as opposed to it being some byproduct. This is independent of whether the mental event is freed or not – thinkingman Aug 22 '23 at 05:51
  • If you told people to write down the square of 97, I guarantee that all the candidates who got the right answer would report thinking about the number 9409 well before any arm activations. – g s Aug 22 '23 at 06:05
  • ..."unconscious reactions have already willed it" ARE "non physical" causes. In nature, the reaction (output) of a system becomes the action (input) of another. "Would the mental event be an effect rather than a cause": yes, so what? There are no causes without consequences and consequences that don't trigger new causes (in physics, this is _information_, which never disappears, apparently except in black holes). See also Laplace's Daemon. – RodolfoAP Aug 22 '23 at 06:28
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    I'm not familiar with the "free will" philosophical considerations, but I would reframe "free will" as those decisions that are created by your brain without significant external influence or coercion, so you should be held responsible for those decisions. When chains of decisions are involved the analysis may be a bit more complex. For example, when you drive under the influence of mind-altering substances you may claim that you did not kill that pedestrian out of free will, but it may have been your own decision (free will) to drink before driving, or you may have been forced to drink. – Hans-Martin Mosner Aug 22 '23 at 07:52
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    Maybe the well-known mind (immaterial)-body (material) dichotomy is not the correct one... See A.N. Whitehead, [Modes of Thought (1938)](https://brocku.ca/MeadProject/Whitehead/Whitehead_1938/1938_06.html), page 156: "the unity 'body and mind' is the obvious complex which constitutes the one human being. [...] our feeling of bodily-unity is a primary experience. It is an experience so habitual and so completely a matter of course that we rarely mention it. No one ever says, 'Here am I, and I have brought my body with me.' " – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Aug 22 '23 at 13:48
  • "The body is that part of nature whose functionings are so coordinated as to be reciprocally coordinated with the functionings of the corresponding human experience. So long as nature was conceived in terms of the passive, instantaneous existence of bits of matter, a difficulty arises. But this conception of matter has now been swept away. Analogous notions of activity, and of forms of transition, apply to human experience and to the human body. Thus bodily activities and forms of experience can be construed in terms of each other. Also the body is part of nature. " – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Aug 22 '23 at 13:51
  • "[Consciousness] is an accident of human existence. It makes us human. But it does not make us exist. It is of the essence of our humanity. But it is an accident of our existence." – Mauro ALLEGRANZA Aug 22 '23 at 13:51
  • Your title question is much broader than the question in the body of your post. If matter had a beginning, any cause of its beginning would have to be non-physical. – Don Branson Aug 22 '23 at 18:03
  • Just dropping the SEP article on Davidson's Anomalous Monism here, which should be essential reading: https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/anomalous-monism/ – Paul Ross Aug 22 '23 at 20:10
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    How does one even measure/observe a "non-physical cause"? We are rooted in the physical universe - I struggle to imagine how you could point to a non-physical cause for a physical effect, since there is absolutely nothing you can measure or observe to indicate that the ephemeral "cause" actually happened. How could you argue that A causes B without any physical evidence whatsoever that A even occurred? – Nuclear Hoagie Aug 22 '23 at 20:20
  • We don't need science to show that free will is plausibly illusory. We only need observe that we don't know how we come to perform any action. Oh sure, we know a little about it. But ultimately it's beyond our ken. – Daniel Asimov Aug 24 '23 at 05:30

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To quote a cliche, the jury is still out on the question of the nature of the mind. There seems to be no doubt that thought and contemplation are somehow associated with physical processes in the brain, and certainly when you decide to lift your arm, the movement is triggered by electrochemical effects. The question is about what happens in between. Is there some kind of free-floating decision making that is not directly determined by the laws of physics acting on the particles that form your brain? Does the brain simply provide the working environment in which the mental causes operate? There is a challenge whichever way you look at it. If you decide that consciousness somehow lies above the physical processes, then you have to find a way to account for the fact that your conscious decisions are able to influence the movement of electrons and ions to trigger the nerve impulses that move your arm. On the other hand, if you suppose that thinking is all to do with the movement of charged particles in the brain, then you have to find a way to explain how those movements give rise to the sensations associated with consciousness. It is an insoluble pancake and a conundrum of the utmost impenetrability, as a certain policeman would have said.

Marco Ocram
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  • Verified cases of psychokinesis, as reviewed in *Irreducible Mind* by Ed Kelly et al, shows that mind can unequivocally influence matter and sometimes in extraordinary ways. So we seem to have to postulate that matter *constrains* (not generates) mind but mind also *influences* matter and *initiates* changes in it. Filter theory of mind-brain relation has been advanced to accommodate both effects. – infatuated Aug 22 '23 at 15:29
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    @infatuated How does one unequivocally show that mind influences matter when we dont even understand the brain or know if the mind is even real? I'm also in pretty severe doubt about "verified psychokenesis" ever being shown in a repeatable scientific manner. – JMac Aug 22 '23 at 16:19
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    @JMac If one doesn't know that mind is real he must ask himself how he can possibly experience an unreality at all? Rejecting reality of the mind is only self-defeating. How is mind (consciousness) unreal when it is at the background of any and all knowledge that we have about anything? It's such a fundamental reality that eliminationists/illusionists admit they are inviting charges of craziness by rejecting it. And you have respectable scientists that have studied the psychokinesis literature and testify that there are real cases. – infatuated Aug 22 '23 at 17:44
  • @infatuated And I think those are good questions one should be asking. It may lead to some conclusions you feel are unintuitive, or dont want to be true, but that's not a good reason to dismiss the possibility. And there are also plenty of respectable scientists who have a lot of problems with the psychokenesis literature. Basically, I think your statements in the original comment I replied to are unfounded extrapolations from things that _at best_ we dont understand. – JMac Aug 22 '23 at 18:41
  • @JMac As a philosophy Phd candidate, I have done the questioning for years and have always fallen back on the reality of consciousness, hence I state my conclusion with confidence. Most scientists under the mainstream physicalist climate just assume that psychokinesis and psi in general are impossible so all evidence must be flawed. Because this stuff is not taught and studied as part of the routine curriculum at academia. But many credible figures such as William James who have had close affinity with the literature/evidence have found some of the phenomena at least very likely. – infatuated Aug 22 '23 at 19:18
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    @infatuated I think it's a good idea to clearly separate your opinions from actual facts, especially when you are saying "unequivocally" in the comments, in relation to a personally held position that is quite clearly not philosophically settled. – JMac Aug 22 '23 at 20:42
  • @JMac I have clearly cited a source for "unequivocal" evidence of mind influencing matter, if that's what you are referring to. – infatuated Aug 22 '23 at 20:44
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    @infatuated How are you using the word unequivocal? Because from what I can find, _Irreducible Mind_ is not without its doubts. – JMac Aug 22 '23 at 20:54
  • @JMac They are citing many cases from psychical research that show mind unequivocally (i.e. clearly) influences matter in ways that physical mediation was impossible even in principle, like cases of people mentally influencing the mind or body of *other* people who were sometimes also at a long distance. *Irreducible Mind* is a pioneer work that their authors and sympathetic readers hope will bring about a major paradigm shift soon, by a definite rebuttal of physicalism and conclusive evidence for a peculiar kind of interactive dualism. You can also consult their video recorded panels. – infatuated Aug 22 '23 at 21:13
  • @infatuated could you reference one case of psychical research that has been verified under strict scientific testing conditions? – ThomasW Aug 23 '23 at 09:43
  • @ThomasW Psychical research is a vast field with many topics and hundreds of case studies/experiments. For their purposes *IM*'s authors cite a selection of best evidence on various topics, including psychokinesis and distant psychokinesis. They cite many review works including on PK and here's [an authoritative one](https://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download;jsessionid=168483C097E471B82A255971E8B586C2?doi=10.1.1.138.3873&rep=rep1&type=pdf) available online by [William Braud](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/William_G._Braud). – infatuated Aug 23 '23 at 11:40
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    Extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence. Experimental results need to be reproduced by objective researchers indifferent to the results. We should be skeptical of the results produced by believers like William Braud. There are plenty of reasons to be skeptical of the ganzfeld experiments. https://skepdic.com/ganzfeld.html – ThomasW Aug 23 '23 at 16:04
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    @ThomasW As for bias, certainly those who question the most fundamental and vivid reality of life (consciousness) all to preserve a prior physicalist dogma give the clearest example of unhealthy bias to the extreme. If you read the paper by Kammerer linked in my answer, he openly gives it away that their primary reason/motivation to deny the undeniable (consciousness) at the cost of looking "crazy", is that not to do so will undermine physcalism! So you have academic phsycalists openly saying that they'll deny the proverbial sun before their eyes only to preserve a preconceived dogma! – infatuated Aug 23 '23 at 17:15
  • @ThomasW As for the article you shared on ganzfeld *psi* skepticism, this is totally unrelated to *PK* studies done by EDA monitoring which measures objective *physiological* (not verbally reported psychological) effects on subjects, hence essentially immune to possible errors and issues that may complicate ganzfeld psi studies. They are also obviously studying different kind of phenomena anyway. Psychical research like I said includes very different topics and issues. – infatuated Aug 23 '23 at 19:55
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The most convenient evidence (and as I'd soon argue, the most robust) for non-physical causation is introspection. I choose to raise my arm and the thing goes up. Period! To question that by unwarranted extrapolation from physical science is invalid specially when the hard problems about mind-brain relations are not yet resolved by mainstream science/philosophy and when there are even concepts from modern science itself that are consistent with mental causation such as quantum indeterminacy (ruling out a causally closed physical world), and brain plasticity (ruling out any fixed and solid correlation between mind and brain). So why extrapolate from modern science only when it helps a prior "physicalist" bias and ignore contrary evidence/theory?

Back to introspection, it has been dismissed as an unreliable means of knowledge in modern philosophy even though consciousness (the agent of introspection) is by far the most indubitable and vivid reality of life to the point that physicalists have really gone to crazy absurd lengths to deny its reality. (See this paper for example. Thanks to Conifold for sharing this the other day).

Moreover, if scientists are willing to look into more "anomalous" mental phenomena, like scientists at Division of Perceptual Studies, UVA have, they'll find clearer empirical evidence of mental causation, such as very peculiar and extreme forms of psycho-physiological influence as in stigmata, maternal impressions, hypnotic-induced shapes on skin, and even more radical cases of mind influencing someone else's body as in telepathy, that are either extremely difficult or outright impossible to explain under physicalism.

Scientists at DOPS have long made their case in their pioneer work Irreducible Mind, and are yet to receive any worthy rebuttal.

infatuated
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    What if the same cause, external to you, both provoked your choice to raise your hand and the corresponding movement, and you just misinterpret the former as the cause of the latter because they happen in rapid succession, a la Hume? "Introspection" is full of bias and "Period!" is no argument. – armand Aug 22 '23 at 06:45
  • @armand There can be innumerable "what if" scenarios, but we have to see which ones correspond with actual knowledge that we know about us and the world. As Descartes in the Western tradition has also shown if I doubt the testimony of my consciousness, I can't trust anything else about the world. I find it hard to imagine that for example, if I am laying in my bed with my eyes closed and no other external stimuli but I suddenly *choose* to jump up and dance in the dark, what *special* physical causation on that night can explain such a peculiar and unprecedented decision? – infatuated Aug 22 '23 at 06:51
  • ... and yet I am not denying that brain processes are necessary to initiate decisions, I'm questioning whether they are *sufficient* for that? – infatuated Aug 22 '23 at 06:54
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    When I was a kid I would walk up to arcade games and 'play' them in demo mode. I would sometimes even think I was actually controlling the demo. Just because you think you caused something to happen doesn't make it so. – JimmyJames Aug 22 '23 at 18:29
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    @JimmyJames Like I said, in absence of unequivocal evidence to the contrary, I trust my intuition and scientific evidence that supports volition. – infatuated Aug 22 '23 at 19:08
  • We have little to no idea of what physical events may be intermediating our "introspection". But there isn't the slightest doubt that they are doing just that. – Daniel Asimov Aug 24 '23 at 05:32
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Agent causation is an established fact. We are able to perform voluntary actions that are not mere causal reactions to prior events. We can decide what we do.

Voluntary muscle actions seem to be caused by converting chemical energy to heat and kinetic energy and controlled by the mind who decides which muscles should contract and when.

The neural signals that trigger the muscles to contract are still physical events that need to be caused by something. The brain is a physical organ often compared to muscles using chemical energy brought by the bloodflow to do what it does, which is mainly processing information and sending muscle control signals.

The brain's capacity to process information is called the mind. The mental and physical processes in the brain are deeply interconnected, but still fundamentally different processes doing completely different things studied by different branches of science.

We still don't know enough about how exactly the mental and the physical processes interact, but it seems that the mind is capable of causing physical changes within the brain. Muscle actions are just causal consequences of the changes in the brain's motor cortex.

The mental event, the decision to move an arm, does seem to be the cause of the physical movement. The decision cannot be an effect, as it is not a physical event. Decisions are not caused by prior events, decisions are based on knowledge about prior events.

Pertti Ruismäki
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N.B., in this answer I equate "non-physical causes exist" with "free will exists" since OP seems to have picked the latter as indication of the first. I have nothing much to say about non-physical causes that are not free-will/mind related... and as Stewart pointed out in his answer, what is a "cause" anyways...

TLDR: nobody knows, but there are strong opinions to be had.

But doesn’t recent science show that free will may be illusory

Absolutely not. There is a lot of philosophy out there which argues about free will and whether it is an illusion or not. Some of this philosophy takes modern scientific findings about certain measurements of brain activity into account to further its arguments. Free Will itself is more a concept than something physical - it's more a question about definitions and beliefs than something you could ever measure.

There is no science out there about this whatsoever, simply because science, while it has made good progress in brain research (i.e. how the visible or microscopic bits and pieces, the electricity, chemistry of the brain work, and how the whole mess may be structured into components or not...), it is awfully far away from producing any findings about how the mind works. Including questions about whether the mind, conscience, self and so on are a pure physical phenomena (i.e., illusions) or whether there is a different, non-physical aspect out there.

While it is easy - and getting steadily easier - to enjoy the "it's all physical" view these days, with many good arguments, there really is no falsifiable scientific evidence whatsoever; nobody has yet come up with a scientific, physical, experiment to prove the one or the other alternative.

It's eerily like the question whether gods exist: it is a question outside of science; there is simply no experiment out there that would prove or disprove the proposition. Like with god, unless you already believe in some super-physical aspect of our minds from the get go, it is very hard to find arguments supporting that assumption. And if you do believe in such, then it is very hard to find arguments dissuading from it.

So to your original question:

Do non physical causes exist?

Nobody knows, there are no experiments to prove or disprove it; there is no reason to believe they do. On the other hand, while there is no particular reason to believe that they do not exist, either; science is encroaching ever more and more and explaining ever more phenomena that are somewhere on the border between brain and mind, making it ever more likely that they do not exist (and if they do, then not in our minds at least; or to such a minuscule amount that it plays no role in everyday life).

On a tangent, the closest you can get to answer the question about free will and how the mind works is, as far as I'm concerned, not scientific, but simply self-reflection (in the form of meditation, e.g. Vipassana or similar purely observing, "insight" based meditations). You can, if you wish, view this as a kind of science, if you view yourself as the scientist; your own mind as the field of study; and yourself as the complete audience; and with unfortunately no way to extrapolate from your findings to something with relevance to other minds (i.e., no matter how long you meditate, you still have no way to solve e.g. the brain-in-a-vat question, or the living-in-a-simulation question; and whatever you personally tell me about your findings while meditating is nothing I can take for a fact about my mind, nor do I have any way to prove or disprove what you tell me about yourself).

On a tangent's tangent: while I personally find some of the science (i.e. that which you quoted about a limb moving before the "spark" has been measured in the brain) fascinating, I personally judge some of the purely philosophical arguments about the (non-)existence of Free Will much much more powerful. For example: one way - maybe the only way - to prove the existence of Free Will would be to "rewind the universe" to a point in the past, and check whether a person decided something different this time around. If a phenomenon requires such an absurd "proof", I strongly favor Occam's Razor.

Heck, and even if we were able to perform that experiment, and a person did indeed decide something differently, how would we ever know that it was not just random chance (i.e., physical quantum-based effects), which would be a very poor form of "Free Will" indeed.

Secondly, from personal experience, both while meditating and just while being mindful of what I do myself, I very much have the feeling that I would have decided any decision I had ever made exactly the same, if the universe were indeed rolled back. I personally would not be asking for science to disprove Free Will, but would challenge it to prove it (with my assumption that there will not be such a thing, ever); the same as I would not expect science to disprove God, but would rather challenge believers to prove it.

AnoE
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  • " I personally would not be asking for science to disprove Free Will, but would challenge it to prove it (with my assumption that there will not be such a thing, ever)" ... but how could there be any science without free will? Without free investigation and free speech? Without agents doing scientific research purposefully and freely? Meat puppets can't do science, can they? – Olivier5 Aug 22 '23 at 20:55
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Let's consider the mind as an object that we can decribe correctly (i.e. correct enough to satisfy a set standard) in two alternative ways: material and mental. To every mental state there are some material states that correspond to (not cause) the mental state. You can study the brain from either perspective or from both. Both perspectives are valid.

In physics, matter has a double-nature of being waves and particles at the same time. In some contexts it is more convenient (i.e. it is more easy to grasp, analyse and understand the system) from the particle perspective, in other contexts from the wave perspective. Likewise, with the brain.

Note that I am not intending by this allegory that particles=material and waves=mental. It's just that the double-nature of the brain and of matter are on par when it comes to understanding; they both seem to break the laws of logic and common sense: How can a particle also be a wave? How can a thought also be a material process? Well, that's just how it seems. We are the universe looking at itself. How could that not lead to paradoxes?

Niels Holst
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How do you know that conscience only happens after the movement (whether it be of an arm or even of a neuron) when you only ever measure the movement? Do you see the problem? "Scientific observation" can't determine that the mental event is an effect rather than the cause because by design it only investigates mind-independent events. Moreover, if the human mind has an immaterial cause behind its choices, you can't observe this cause through material investigation. Its immateriality can only be demonstrated rationally, if at all.

The papers here and here purport to demonstrate it, and the proof can be summarized as follows. Material processes are all indeterminate, and at least some mental processes are determinate. Therefore, the mind can't be reduced to the material, and must have some kind of immateriality behind its determinacy. For an example of my own, consider this emoji, which should be material enough: . Upon seeing it you can take it to be a triangle, or a strongly seasoned dorito, or just a bunch of dots on a screen, or an irregular polygon with way more sides than 3 if you scale it up enough that the individual pixels become visible squares, etc., thus showing the inherent indeterminacy of the emoji itself. But either one of these concepts will be determinate themselves. If you choose to think specifically about the concept of triangle then you'll definitely be thinking about triangularity, not about polygons with more than 3 sides or clusters of dots, since they are mutually exclusive. This thought can't be reduced to or be strictly caused by the image of the emoji because 1) the same image could just as well have given rise to the other concepts since they all also properly describe the image, 2) the same concept encapsulates an infinity of particular triangles besides the one in the emoji, and 3) the image and even the stimuli it causes in your body may change ever so slightly, e.g. by irregularities in neuronal activity and environmental lighting, while the concept does not. Among other reasons. So the cause of your choice must be somehow over and above the material phenomena surrounding it, which also means it can't be directly observed by outsiders which only have access to the material phenomena.

Mutoh
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  • I dont see how this argument follows. Because the human brain is good at generalizing things into more abstract concepts, that means something non-material is actually affecting things? Couldn't the concept of a triangle be some sort of brain activity/layout, and then when you see something with triangle-like properties the brain functions could just link that to your memory of a generalized triangle? – JMac Aug 22 '23 at 22:20
  • @JMac the point is precisely that there's no brain activity/layout capable of corresponding to a determinate concept. Among other reasons (like corresponding only to one concept and nothing else, otherwise it's indeterminate between multiple concepts), it would not only have to be unchanging like the concept is, it would have to be unbounded by space. So even if somehow you kept your neurons absolutely static down to the elementary particles, it wouldn't explain the same concept being grasped by another brain with different matter. – Mutoh Aug 23 '23 at 13:10
  • Why are you assuming the concept itself is ever "determinate"? I would argue that even concepts are quite mutable, and are unlikely to be thought of identically by any two people, or even by the same person at different points in time. When I think of a triangle, my associations with that have changed as I learned more, and a triangle to me will not be thought of in the same way a mathematician might, for example. – JMac Aug 23 '23 at 15:26
  • @JMac if you're not thinking of a polygon with 3 edges and 3 vertices, you're not thinking of a triangle. When you learn that, for example, such a polygon can be either isosceles, scalene or equilateral, triangularity remains exactly the same. If what you have in mind by "triangle" is different than what I have or what you had a moment ago (maybe now the number of edges or vertices is different), you're simply attributing the same word to a different concept. The articles address similar propositions at length. – Mutoh Aug 23 '23 at 16:15
  • But what says you _only_ think about a polygon with 3 vertices? Triangles have more universal properties than that. If I was only shown equalateral triangles at first, I might have a concept of "triangle" that isn't universal with others. Yet we still both would recognize that emoji as a triangle, and my concept of a triangle could also change if I learned that equal side lengths was not required. – JMac Aug 23 '23 at 16:38
  • @JMac if at one moment what you have in mind by "triangle" truly entails that it's always equilateral while in another it truly entails that a "triangle" can be other than equilateral, still no concepts changed, you simply stopped associating the word "triangle" with one concept to associate it with another, more general. Using the same word to describe the same image doesn't mean we're referring to the same concept, which is also is addressed in the papers as the "gavagai" problem. It only reinforces the indeterminacy of the emoji and of words/symbols in general. – Mutoh Aug 23 '23 at 17:28
  • But you still havent shown that anyone has an internal determinant concept of anything. We can only relay and compare concepts to each other with words and symbols, which you say are indeterminate. So how could you possibly compare a concept in one person's mind to another, or to the same mind in another point in time? Comparing and even articulating a concept requires words/symbols, so how could we ever determine that concepts are any more determinant than the tools we use to express them. – JMac Aug 23 '23 at 17:41
  • @JMac denying that thought is determinate would itself be a determinate statement and can't be coherently stated. That thought can be determinate is defended in the first section of the first paper (p. 3 onwards of the PDF) and the denial is addressed in pages 17 and onward of the second paper. – Mutoh Aug 23 '23 at 17:47
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I take it that physicalism is true. The idea of psychologism being true leads me to think that all things can be reduced to being physical, thus making physicalism being true if somehow everything was of a mental substance ("mind of God").

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I would answer this with a counter-question. Hear me out:

Do physical causes exist?

What does cause mean? If Ball A hits Ball B, and we say "A causes B to move", what we mean is, the impact of ball A happened first.

The phrasing of the question ("time perspective", etc) implies that sequence of events and a time, is important to this definition of cause.

But time is a component of the physical universe. Physicists measure it, and will tell you how gravity changes it.

So a non-physical cause must be something that excludes time, otherwise it would be physical.

If a non-physical cause excludes time, that implies it is something physics can't measure; physics being the study of the physical. It also implies this type of cause is of the eternal, abstract variety.

For me, this shifts it around. There are no physical causes, only physical effects. Ball B is the effect of ball A, which was the effect of something before, etc, etc ...

Stewart
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I think the fundamental issue with Cartesian dualism lies in defining mental events, the human mental life, as "non-physical". From that unnecessary assumption follows all sorts of difficulties, such as the one highlighted in the OP: how come a non-physical "ghost" have physical effects?

The human mind is evidently causal. I can ask my wife to do something for me, and if she is so disposed she will do it. The example shows that symbolic information, an exchange of sentence such as "Honey did you see my glasses? - They are on the kitchen table" can result in a physical outcome. Thoughts can be shared, people can be persuaded. Thoughts are causal. Otherwise, there's neither a need nor a possibility for philosophy.

Therefore I believe the mind is physical, in some yet unknown manner of "being physical". Or perhaps we already know. My money is on brainwaves.

Olivier5
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Not in any useful sense. Suppose you observe some physical effect, and posit that it is caused by some non-physical cause. By nature of the cause being non-physical there is absolutely nothing you can measure or observe to indicate that the cause actually happened. I can also posit that the physical effect is due to some entirely different non-physical cause, and there is also no evidence I can produce to indicate my cause actually happened. We're each stuck claiming a different non-physical cause for the physical effect - it's impossible that we're both right, yet it is also impossible to favor one explanation over another since there is no (and indeed there can be no) evidence supporting either one.

Basically, if you claim that a physical effect has a particular non-physical cause, I can make an equally compelling claim that the effect was due to any other non-physical cause. If you claim your arm went up because you non-physically willed it, I can claim your arm went up because I non-physically willed it. Any argument that says that's not possible is going to come back to physicality of causes and effects.

Non-physical causes could conceivably be linked to any and all effects and can't be supported or disproved one way or another, so it seems like a rather useless concept. Observing physical event B and claiming "A caused B" while having no evidence whatsoever of A is rather pointless, and the fact that all other unsupported explanations X, Y, and Z are equally compelling only further shows that non-physical "causes" don't really explain anything at all.

Nuclear Hoagie
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