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What does the arrow (which I've highlighted) mean?

Ⅴ7 ⤻ Ⅳ

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user45165
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1 Answers1

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Just a quick answer: that seems to indicate a secondary dominant ("five-seven of four"). I believe it is more common to show them with a slash, e.g., V7/IV. Check out this question --- What is a secondary dominant chord? --- for further discussion.

Neal
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  • It is so, but not well written, as it's C>C7>F>G7>C, making it more strictly I7, and no good reason for not putting it as such. – Tim Jan 10 '18 at 14:49
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    If you have something like C>D7>G7>C, I think that example is conventional enough that you're on the safe side to notate it I >V7/V>V7>I --- and probably the same thing with the above example. If you get something like C>D7>E7>B7, then they're not reasonably functioning as secondary dominants, and it would only be confusing to notate them as, oh... C>V7/V>V7/vi>V7/iii ...? Just my 2 cents. (I see you've discussed this before in that question I linked to.) – Neal Jan 10 '18 at 15:14
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    Considering we're firmly locked into C major by the pedal note, it would have been more useful to call it I7 with, in parentheses, V7 of IV. – Laurence Jan 10 '18 at 18:36
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    I disagree with the I7 suggestion. I7 is not a chord with harmonic implications, whereas V7/IV is (and the expectation of resolution is actually fulfilled here as well!). In a higher-level analysis, the entire passage is all a contrapuntal expansion of I anyway, which is why the three chords are in parentheses. (In my opinion, parenthetical Roman numerals under a pedal are written as if the pedal weren't there; otherwise e.g. the V7 would be a pretty dissonant harmony indeed. The ear also focuses on the moving part.) – Remy Jan 11 '18 at 04:33
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    Agreed with Remy here - never “I7”. – jjmusicnotes Jan 11 '18 at 05:36
  • I7 has the same harmonic implication as any other 'dominant 7th' shape chord. 'V7 of IV' is the realisation of that implication. – Laurence Jan 11 '18 at 12:14
  • @Tim adding the secondary dominant creates a musical vector towards the "secondary tonic" to which it resolves. You might say that it makes the IV chord more subdominant than it would otherwise be. Anyway, that's the justification for analyzing it as such. – BobRodes Jan 12 '18 at 02:09
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    Just to chime in against the `I7` heresy. `I7` of C is `c-e-g-b` -- a major 7th chord. The chord in the example is a **dominant 7th** chord. So it definitely `V7/IV` (or `V7 of IV` as used by Piston). – Dean Ransevycz Jan 12 '18 at 03:52
  • @DeanRansevycz - never thought of 'I7' as a major seventh chord, if that's a fact, then that's a darned good reason for *not* using it ! – Tim Jan 12 '18 at 08:13